Date: 2019-10-02 Category: Not Applicable State: Tamil Nadu Country: India

ACTS - No. 8 of 2019 to 22 of 2019

Issued by Part IV-Section 4 · Not Applicable

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Executive Summary & Key Takeaways

                    **Executive Summary**
The document is the Tamil Nadu Government Gazette from October 2, 2019. It publishes various Central Acts and Ordinances, including amendments to existing Acts related to special economic zones, Jammu and Kashmir reservation, educational institutions, medical councils, dentists, Aadhaar, national investigation, arbitration centers, and more. This gazette outlines several new and amended laws enacted by the Parliament of India.

**Key Points / Main Content**

*   **Special Economic Zones (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005.
    *   Includes trusts and entities notified by the Central Government in the definition of "local authority".
    *   The Special Economic Zones (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   Effective from March 2, 2019.

*   **Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Jammu and Kashmir Reservation Act, 2004.
    *   Replaces "Line of Actual Control" with "Actual Line of Control and International Border".
    *   The Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   Effective from March 1, 2019.

*   **Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers' Cadre) Act, 2019:**

    *   Provides for the reservation of posts in appointments by direct recruitment of teachers in Central Educational Institutions for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, socially and educationally backward classes, and economically weaker sections.
    *   Defines key terms such as "appropriate authority," "branch of study," and "Central Educational Institution."
    *   Lists institutions exempted from reservation provisions.
    *   The Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers' Cadre) Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   Effective from March 7, 2019.

*   **Homoeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973.
    *   Extends the period to two years to the time frame for recognition in Section 3A.
    *   The Homoeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   Effective from March 2, 2019.

*   **Indian Medical Council (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.
    *   The Indian Medical Council (Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   Effective from September 26, 2018, with specific provisions effective from January 12, 2019.

*   **Dentists (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Dentists Act, 1948.
    *   Removes certain restrictions on dentists registered in Part B of a State register.
    *   To come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.

*   **Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016, the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002.
    *   Defines "Aadhaar ecosystem" and "offline verification".
    *   Provides options for voluntary use of Aadhaar for authentication.
    *   The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   To come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint; and different dates may be appointed for different provisions.

*   **Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the Central Universities Act, 2009.
    *   Establishes the Central University of Andhra Pradesh and the Central Tribal University of Andhra Pradesh.
    *   Substitutes the First Schedule to include new universities.
    *   To come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.

*   **National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019:**

    *   Amends the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008.
    *   Expands the NIA's jurisdiction to include scheduled offenses committed outside India against Indian citizens or affecting India's interests.
    *   Designates Courts of Session as Special Courts.
    *   To come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint.

*   **New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019:**

    *   Establishes and incorporates the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre.
    *   Declares the Centre as an institution of national importance.
    *   Provides for the acquisition and transfer of undertakings from the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution.
    *   Repeals the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019.
    *   Effective from March 2, 2019.

*   **The Appropriation (No. 2) Act, 2019**
    *   Authorizes the payment and appropriation of 98,189,038,200,000 Indian rupees from the Consolidated Fund of India for the services of the financial year 2019-20.
*   **Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019:**

    *   Protects the rights of married Muslim women and prohibits divorce by pronouncing talaq.
    *   Declares talaq to be void and illegal.
    *   Provides for subsistence allowance and custody of minor children.
    *   The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Second Ordinance, 2019 is repealed.
    *   Effective from September 19, 2018.

*   **Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019**
    *   Provides for a comprehensive mechanism to ban unregulated deposit schemes to protect the interest of depositors.
    *   It extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

**Impact Analysis**

**Central Government**

*   **Impact:** Responsible for implementing and overseeing the execution of the amended and new laws. They also have powers to constitute committees, make rules, and issue notifications.

*   **Action Required:** Publish notifications for effective dates, appoint authorities and officials, and ensure compliance with new regulations.

**State Governments and Union Territory Administrations**

*   **Impact:** Required to implement and enforce applicable provisions within their jurisdictions, particularly concerning reservation policies, registration requirements, and dispute resolution mechanisms.
*   **Action Required:** Adapt existing policies and regulations to align with the new laws, appoint relevant authorities, and ensure effective enforcement.

**Educational Institutions**

*   **Impact:** Central educational institutions must implement reservation policies in teacher recruitment, as specified in the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teachers' Cadre) Act, 2019.
*   **Action Required:** Revise recruitment policies to comply with reservation requirements and monitor compliance with new regulations.

**Medical Professionals and Institutions**

*   **Impact:** The Indian Medical Council Amendment Act and the Dentists Amendment Act affect medical professionals and institutions involved in medical education and practice.
*   **Action Required:** Understand the changes to the Indian Medical Council Act, align practices, and update registration details as necessary.

**Businesses and Companies**

*   **Impact:** Companies are impacted by the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act and The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act. Additionally, financial firms must implement changes to Aadhaar verification procedures and comply with new disclosure norms and registration requirements.

*   **Action Required:** Implement Aadhaar verification methods, ensure compliance with KYC norms, and update deposit-taking schemes to align with the Act's provisions.

**Citizens**

*   **Impact:** Citizens are directly impacted by laws concerning Aadhaar, reservation, and protection of rights, especially for women and those in vulnerable groups.

*   **Action Required:** Understand their rights and responsibilities under the new laws and comply with authentication and verification processes as required.
                

Key Entities Referenced

Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019: An act to amend the Aadhaar Act, the Indian Telegraph Act and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019: An act to protect married muslim women and to prohibit divorce by pronouncing talaq Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019: An act to ban unregulated deposit schemes, to protect depositors and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Special Economic Zones (Amendment) Act, 2019: An act to amend the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 Tamil Nadu: Location of the Government Gazette

Official Source Record View Original Source →

See Full Document Text

                © [Regd. No. TN/CCN/467/2012-14.
GOVERNMENT OF TAMIL NADU [R. Dis. No. 197/2009.
2019 [Price: Rs. 31.20 Paise.
TAMIL NADU
GOVERNMENT GAZETTE
PUBLISHED BY AUTHORITY
No. 40] CHENNAI, WEDNESDAY, OCTOBER 2, 2019
Purattasi 15, Vikari, Thiruvalluvar Aandu – 2050
Part IV—Section 4
CENTRAL ACTS AND ORDINANCES
CCOONNTTEENNTTSS
PPaaggeess..
AACCTTSS::
No. 8 of 2019—The Special Economic Zones (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. .. 229944
No. 9 of 2019—The Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. 229955--229966
No. 10 of 2019—The Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Teacher’s Cadre) Act, 2019 .. 229977--330000
No. 11 of 2019—The Homoeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. 330011--330022
No. 12 of 2019—The Indian Medical Council (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. .. 330033--330044
No. 13 of 2019—The Dentists (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. .. 330055--330066
No. 14 of 2019—The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. .. 330077--331166
No. 15 of 2019—The Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. .. 331177--331188
No. 16 of 2019—The National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. 331199--332222
No. 17 of 2019—The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019 .. .. .. 332233--333322
No. 18 of 2019—The Appropriation (No. 2) Act 2019 .. .. .. .. .. .. 333333--333388
No. 19 of 2019—The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. 333399--334400
No. 20 of 2019—The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 .. .. 334411--334444
No. 21 of 2019—The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Act, 2019 .. .. .. 334455--336600
No. 22 of 2019—The Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019 .. .. .. .. 336611--336699
[293]
40-IV-4—1294 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
MINISTRY OF LAW AND JUSTICE
(Legislative Department)
New Delhi, the 8th July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
6th July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE SPECIAL ECONOMIC ZONES (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019.
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AnActto amend theSpecialEconomic Zones(cid:3)Act, 2005.
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D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 295
New Delhi, the 9th July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
9th July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
(cid:55)(cid:43)(cid:40)(cid:3)(cid:45)(cid:36)(cid:48)(cid:48)(cid:56)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:49)(cid:39)(cid:3)(cid:46)(cid:36)(cid:54)(cid:43)(cid:48)(cid:44)(cid:53)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:40)(cid:54)(cid:40)(cid:53)(cid:57)(cid:36)(cid:55)(cid:44)(cid:50)(cid:49)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:48)(cid:40)(cid:49)(cid:39)(cid:48)(cid:40)(cid:49)(cid:55)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:38)(cid:55)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:3).
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AnActfurther to amend the Jammuand KashmirReservationAct, 2004.
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D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.296 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 297
New Delhi, the 9th July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
9th July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
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(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:24)(cid:25)(cid:17)(cid:3) (iii)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)
(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:56)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:24)(cid:25)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)
(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(iv)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)
(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:16)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)i(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:16)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)ii(cid:12)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)
(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:16)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)iii(cid:12)(cid:30)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)
(cid:21)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:25)(cid:19)(cid:17)(cid:3) (v)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)
(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:27)(cid:25)(cid:19)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(d)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)
(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(e)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:5)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)
(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:73)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)Explanation (cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:25)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:24)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(f)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)298 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(f)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(g)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:48)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)
(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:20)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:19)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)
(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)
(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:23)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(h)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:5)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:80)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:10)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:19)(cid:24)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(i)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:23)(cid:20)(cid:3)
(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(j)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)
(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(k)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:5)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:78)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:3)
(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:23)(cid:21)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:30)(cid:3)
(l)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:10)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:5)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:3) (cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3) (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:86)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:69)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:92)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3) (cid:73)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3) (cid:90)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)
(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:74)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:79)(cid:88)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:88)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3) 3.(cid:11)1(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:79)(cid:68)(cid:90)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)
(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)
(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:10)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:71)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:3)
(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:85)(cid:88)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:3)
(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)
(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:68)(cid:93)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:11)2(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:41)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:85)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:89)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)
(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3) 4.(cid:11)1(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:178)
(cid:68)(cid:83)(cid:83)(cid:79)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)
(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)
(a)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:91)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)
(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:74)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:80)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:30)(cid:3)Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 299
(b)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:40)(cid:71)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:11)2(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:81)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:81)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:73)(cid:73)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:42)(cid:68)(cid:93)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)
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THE SCHEDULE
[See Section 4(l)(a)]
Sl. No. Name of the Institution of Excellence, etc.
(1) (2)
1. Homi Bhabha National Institute, Mumbai and its constituent units, namely:-
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Trombay;
(ii) Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research; Kalpakkam;
(iii) Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology, Indore;
(iv) Institute for Plasma Research, Gandhinagar;
(v) Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre, Kolkata;
(vi) Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics, Kolkata;
(vii) Institute of Physics, Bhubaneshwar;
(viii) Institute of Mathematical Sciences, Chennai;
(ix) Harish-Chandra Research Institute, Allahabad;
(x) Tata Memorial Centre, Mumbai ..300 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
2. Tata Institute of Fundamental Research Mumbai.
3. North-Eastern Indira Gandhi Regional Institute of Health and Medical Science”
Shillong.
4. National Brain Research Centre, Manesar, Gurgaon.
5. Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientifi c Research, Bangalore:
6. Physical Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad.
7. Space Physics Laboratory, Thiruvananthapuram.
8. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 301
New Delhi, the 15th July, 2019.
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An (cid:3)(cid:3)Act further to amend the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973.
(cid:37)(cid:40)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:51)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:54)(cid:72)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:72)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:60)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:79)(cid:76)(cid:70)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:82)(cid:90)(cid:86)(cid:29)
(cid:178)(cid:3)
1. (cid:11)1(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:80)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12) (cid:54)(cid:75)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:3)
(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)
(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:16)
(cid:11)2(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:44)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:68)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:48)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:24)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:22)(cid:17)(cid:3) 2. (cid:44)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:22)(cid:36)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:22)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:16)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:11)2(cid:12)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:73)(cid:82)(cid:85) (cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:3)
(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:5)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:5)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:92)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:85)(cid:86)(cid:5)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3) (cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:72)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)
(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:69)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:88)(cid:87)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:22)(cid:36)(cid:17)(cid:3)
3. (cid:11)1(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:55)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:11)(cid:36)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:69)(cid:92) (cid:53)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:3)
(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:20)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)
(cid:21)(cid:19)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:17)(cid:3) (cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:86)(cid:17)(cid:3)
(cid:3)(cid:11)2(cid:12)(cid:3)(cid:49)(cid:82)(cid:87)(cid:90)(cid:76)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:86)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:88)(cid:70)(cid:75)(cid:3)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:83)(cid:72)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)
(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:43)(cid:82)(cid:80)(cid:82)(cid:72)(cid:82)(cid:83)(cid:68)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:87)(cid:85)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:38)(cid:82)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:76)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:22)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:50)(cid:85)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:68)(cid:81)(cid:70)(cid:72)(cid:15)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:79)(cid:79)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:3)
(cid:24)(cid:28)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:20)(cid:28)(cid:26)(cid:22) (cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:82)(cid:3)(cid:75)(cid:68)(cid:89)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:72)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:71)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:68)(cid:78)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:3)(cid:88)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:85)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:70)(cid:82)(cid:85)(cid:85)(cid:72)(cid:86)(cid:83)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:76)(cid:81)(cid:74)(cid:3)(cid:83)(cid:85)(cid:82)(cid:89)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:76)(cid:82)(cid:81)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:82)(cid:73)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:72)(cid:3)(cid:86)(cid:68)(cid:76)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:3)(cid:68)(cid:86)(cid:3)
(cid:68)(cid:80)(cid:72)(cid:81)(cid:71)(cid:72)(cid:71)(cid:3)(cid:69)(cid:92)(cid:3)(cid:87)(cid:75)(cid:76)(cid:86)(cid:3)(cid:36)(cid:70)(cid:87)(cid:17)(cid:3)
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.302 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 303
New Delhi, the 16th July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
16th July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE INDIAN MEDICAL COUNCIL (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019.
No. 12 of 2019
An Act further to amend the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. (1) This Act may be called the Indian Medical Council (Amendment) Act, 2019. Short title and
commence-
ment.
(2) (A) The provisions of this Act shall, except sub-clause (i) of clause (c) of
section 2,be deemed to have come into force on the 26th day of September, 2018; and
(B) sub-clause (i) of clause (c) of section 2 shall be deemed to have come
into force on the12th day of January, 2019.
102 of 1956. 2. In section 3A of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956,— Amendment of
section 3A
(a) in sub-section (1), for the words, brackets and fi gures “Indian Medical
32 of 2010. Council (Amendment) Act, 2010”, the words, brackets and fi gures “Indian Medical Council
(Amendment) Act, 2019” shall be substituted;
(b) in sub-section (2), for the words “three years”, the words “two years”
shall be substituted;
(c) in sub-section (4),—
(i) for the words “seven persons”, the words “twelve persons” shall be
substituted;
(ii) for the words “and medical education”, the words “and medical
education or proven administrative capacity and experience” shall be substituted;
(d) after sub-section (7), the following sub-section shall be inserted,
namely:—
“(7A) The Board of Governors shall be assisted by a Secretary General
who shall be appointed by the Central Government on deputation or contract basis and he
shall be the head of the secretariat in the Council.”.
Ord. 5 of 2019. 3. (1) The Indian Medical Council (Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 is hereby Repeal and
repealed. savings.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken under the
102 of 1956. Indian Medical Council Act, 1956, as amended by the said Ordinance, shall be deemed to
have been done or taken under the corresponding provisions of the said Act, as amended by
this Act.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.304 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 305
New Delhi, the 18th July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 17th July
2019, and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE DENTISTS (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019.
No. 13 of 2019
An Act further to amend the Dentists Act, 1948.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India asfollows:—
1. (1) This Act may be called the Dentists (Amendment) Act, 2019. Short title and
commence-
ment.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by
notifi cation in the Offi cial Gazette, appoint.
16 of 1948 2. In section 3 of the Dentists Act, 1948 (hereinafter referred to as the principal Act), Amendment of
in clause (f), the words and letter “and at least two shall be dentists registered in Part B of a section 3.
State register” shall be omitted.
3. In section 21 of the principal Act, clause (b) shall be omitted. Amendment of
section 21.
4. In section 23 of the principal Act, clause (b) shall be omitted. Amendment of
section 23.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.306 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 307
New Delhi, the 24th July 2019
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 23rd July,
2019, and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE AADHAAR AND OTHER LAWS (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019
No. 14 of 2019
An Act to amend the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies,
Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016 and further to amend the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
and the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
PART I
P(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3477)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3489)
Short title and
1. (1) This Act may be called the Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Act, 2019.
commence-
ment.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by
notifi cation in the Offi cial Gazette, appoint; and diff erent dates may be appointed for diff erent
provisions of this Act and any reference in any such provision to the commencement of this
Act shall be construed as a reference to the commencement of that provision.
PART II
A(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3483) T(cid:3479) T(cid:3472)(cid:3469) A(cid:3465)(cid:3468)(cid:3472)(cid:3465)(cid:3465)(cid:3482) (T(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3471)(cid:3469)(cid:3484)(cid:3469)(cid:3468) D(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3486)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3489) O(cid:3470) F(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3467)(cid:3473)(cid:3465)(cid:3476) A(cid:3478)(cid:3468) O(cid:3484)(cid:3472)(cid:3469)(cid:3482) S(cid:3485)(cid:3466)(cid:3483)(cid:3473)(cid:3468)(cid:3473)(cid:3469)(cid:3483),
B(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3469)(cid:3470)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3483) A(cid:3478)(cid:3468) S(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3486)(cid:3473)(cid:3467)(cid:3469)(cid:3483)) A(cid:3467)(cid:3484), 2016
Amendment 2. In the long title of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies,
of Long title Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016 (hereafter in this Part referred to as the principal Act), after
of Act 18 of the words “the Consolidated Fund of India”, the words “or the Consolidated Fund of the
2016.
State” shall be inserted.
Amendment of 3. In section 2 of the Principal Act,—
section 2.
(i) for clause (a), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—
‘(a) “Aadhaar number” means an identifi cation number issued to an individual
under sub-section (3) of section 3, and includes any alternative virtual identity generated
under sub-section (4) of that section;’;
(ii) after clause (a), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
‘(aa) “Aadhaar ecosystem” includes enrolling agencies, Registrars,requesting
entities, offl ine verifi cation-seeking entities and any other entity or group of entities as may be
specifi ed by regulations;’;
(iii) after clause (b), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—
‘(ba) “Adjudicating Offi cer” means an Adjudicating Offi cer appointed under
sub-section (1) of section 33B;
(bb) “Appellate Tribunal” means the Appellate Tribunal referred to in
sub-section (1) of section 33C;’;
(iv) after clause (i), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
‘(ia) “child” means a person who has not completed eighteen years of age;’;
(v) after clause (p), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—
‘(pa) “offl ine verifi cation” means the process of verifying the identity of the
Aadhaar number holder without authentication, through such offl ine modes as may be
specifi ed by regulations;
(pb) “offl ine verifi cation-seeking entity” means any entity desirous of
undertaking offl ine verifi cation of an Aadhaar number holder;’.308 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Amendment of 4. In section 3 of the principal Act, after sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall
section 3. be inserted, namely:—
“(4) The Aadhaar number issued to an individual under sub-section (3) shall be
a twelve-digit identifi cation number and any alternative virtual identity as an alternative to
the actual Aadhaar number of an individual that shall be generated by the Authority in such
manner as may be specifi ed by regulations.”.
Insertion of new 5. After section 3 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—
section 3A.
Aadhaar “3A. (1) The enrolling agency shall, at the time of enrolment of a child, seek the
number of consent of the parent or guardian of the child, and inform the parent or guardian, the details
children. specifi ed under sub-section (2) of section 3.
(2) A child who is an Aadhaar number holder may, within a period of six months of
attaining the eighteen years of age, make an application to the Authority for cancellation of his
Aadhaar number, in such manner as may be specifi ed by regulations and the Authority shall
cancel his Aadhaar number.
(3) Notwithstanding anything in section 7, a child shall not be denied any subsidy,
benefi t or service under that section in case of failure to establish his identity by undergoing
authentication, or furnishing proof of possession of Aadhaar number, or in the case of a child
to whom no Aadhaar number has been assigned, producing an application for enrolment.”.
Amendment of 6. In section 4 of the principal Act, for sub-section (3), the following sub-sections shall
section 4. be substituted, namely:—
“(3) Every Aadhaar number holder to establish his identity, may voluntarily use his
Aadhaar number in physical or electronic form by way of authentication or offl ine verifi cation,
or in such other form as may be notifi ed, in such manner as may be specifi ed by regulations.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, voluntary use of the Aadhaar
number by way of authentication means the use of such Aadhaar number only with the
informed consent of the Aadhaar number holder.
(4) An entity may be allowed to perform authentication, if the Authority is satisfi ed
that the requesting entity is—
(a) compliant with such standards of privacy and security as may be specifi ed
by regulations; and
(b) (i) permitted to off er authentication services under the provisions of any
other law made by Parliament; or
(ii) seeking authentication for such purpose, as the Central Government
in consultation with the Authority, and in the interest of State, may prescribe.
(5) The Authority may, by regulations, decide whether a requesting entity shall be
permitted the use of the actual Aadhaar number during authentication or only an alternative
virtual identity.
(6) Every requesting entity to whom an authentication request is made by an
Aadhaar number holder under sub-section (3) shall inform to the Aadhaar number holder of
alternate and viable means of identifi cation and shall not deny any service to him for refusing
to, or being unable to, undergo authentication.
(7) Notwithstanding anything contained in the foregoing provisions, mandatory
authentication of an Aadhaar number holder for the provision of any service shall take place
if such authentication is required by a law made by Parliament.”.
Amendment of 7. In section 7 of the principal Act, after the words “the Consolidated Fund of India”, the
section 7. words “or the Consolidated Fund of State” shall be inserted.
Amendment of 8. In section 8 of the principal Act,—
section 8.
(a) in sub-section (2),—
(i) in clause (a), after the words “consent of an individual”, the words“, or in
the case of a child obtain the consent of his parent or guardian” shall be inserted;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 309
(ii) after clause (b), the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
“Provided that the requesting entity shall, in case of failure to authenticate due
to illness, injury or infi rmity owing to old age or otherwise or any technical or other reasons,
provide such alternate and viable means of identifi cation of the individual, as may be specifi ed
by regulations.”;
(b) in sub-section (3), after the words “for authentication,”, the words “or in
the case of a child, his parent or guardian” shall be inserted.
9. After section 8 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:— Insertion of new
section 8A.
“8A. (1) Every offl ine verifi cation of an Aadhaar number holder shall be performed Offl ine
in accordance with the provisions of this section. verifi cation
of Aadhaar
(2) Every offl ine verifi cation-seeking entity shall,— number.
(a) before performing offl ine verifi cation, obtain the consent of an individual,
or in the case of a child, his parent or guardian, in such manner as may be specifi ed by
regulations; and
(b) ensure that the demographic information or any other information collected
from the individual for offl ine verifi cation is only used for the purpose of such verifi cation.
(3) An offl ine verifi cation-seeking entity shall inform the individual undergoing
offl ine verifi cation, or in the case of a child, his parent or guardian, the following details with
respect to offl ine verifi cation, in such manner as may be specifi ed by regulations, namely:—
(a) the nature of information that may be shared upon offl ine verifi cation;
(b) the uses to which the information received during offl ine verifi cation may
be put by the offl ine verifi cation-seeking entity; and
(c) alternatives to submission of information requested for, if any.
(4) No offl ine verifi cation-seeking entity shall—
(a) subject an Aadhaar number holder to authentication;
(b) collect, use, or store an Aadhaar number or biometric information of any
individual for any purpose;
(c) take any action contrary to any obligation on it as may be specifi ed by
regulations.”.
10. For section 21 of the principal Act, the following section shall be substituted, Substitution of
namely:— new section
for section
21.
“21. (1) The Authority shall appoint such offi cers and employees as may be Offi cers
required for the discharge of its functions under this Act. and other
employees of
(2) The salaries and allowances payable to, and the other terms and conditions of Authority.
service of, the offi cers and employees of the Authority shall be such as may be specifi ed by
regulations.”.
11. After section 23 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:— Insertion of new
section 23A.
“23A.(1) The Authority may for the discharge of its functions under this Act, or any
Power of
rules or regulations made thereunder, by order, issue such directions from time to time to any
Authority
entity in the Aadhaar ecosystem, as it may consider necessary.
to issue
directions.
(2) Every direction issued under sub-section (1) shall be complied with by the
entity in the Aadhaar ecosystem to whom such direction is issued.”.
12. For section 25 of the principal Act, the following section shall be substituted, Substitution of
namely:— new section
for section
25.310 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Fund. “25. (1) There shall be constituted a Fund to be called the Unique Identifi cation
Authority of India Fund and there shall be credited thereto—
(a) all grants, fees and charges received by the Authority under
this Act; and
(b) all sums received by the Authority from such other sources
as may be decided upon by the Central Government.
(2) The Fund shall be applied for meeting—
(a) the salaries and allowances payable to the Chairperson and members
and administrative expenses including the salaries, allowances and pension payable to or in
respect of offi cers and other employees of the Authority; and
(b) the expenses on objects and for purposes authorised by this Act.”.
Amendment of 13. In section 29 of the principal Act,—
section 29.
(a) for sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall be substituted,
namely:—
“(3) No identity information available with a requesting entity or offl ine verifi cation-
seeking entity shall be—
(a) used for any purpose, other than the purposes informed in writing to the
individual at the time of submitting any information for authentication or offl ine verifi cation; or
(b) disclosed for any purpose, other than purposes informed in writing to the
individual at the time of submitting any information for authentication or offl ine verifi cation:
Provided that the purposes under clauses (a) and (b) shall be in clear and
precise language understandable to the individual.”;
(b) in sub-section (4), for the words “or core biometric information”, the words‘‘,
demographic information or photograph”, shall be substituted.
14. In section 33 of the principal Act,—
Amendment of
section 33.
(i) in sub-section (1),—
(a) for the words “District Judge”, the words “Judge of a High Court” shall be
substituted;
(b) in the proviso, after the words “hearing to the Authority”, the words “and
the concerned Aadhaar number holder” shall be inserted;
(c) after the proviso, the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
“Provided further that the core biometric information shall not be disclosed
under this sub-section.”;
(ii) in sub-section (2), for the words “Joint Secretary”, the word “Secretary” shall
be substituted.
Insertion of new 15. After Chapter VI of the principal Act, the following Chapter shall be inserted,
Chapter VIA. namely:—
“CHAPTER VIA
C(cid:3473)(cid:3486)(cid:3473)(cid:3476) P(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3476)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3469)(cid:3483)
Penalty for 33A. (1) Where an entity in the Aadhaar ecosystem fails to comply with the
failure to
provision of this Act, the rules or regulations made thereunder or directions issued by the
comply with
Authority under section 23A, or fails to furnish any information, document, or return of report
provisions
required by the Authority, such entity shall be liable to a civil penalty which may extend to one
of this
Act, rules, crore rupees for each contravention and in case of a continuing failure, with additional penalty
regulations which may extend to ten lakh rupees for every day during which the failure continues after the
and fi rst contravention.
directions.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 311
(2) The amount of any penalty imposed under this section, if not paid, may be Power to
recovered as if it were an arrear of land revenue. adjudicate
33B. (1) For the purposes of adjudication under section 33A and imposing a
penalty thereunder, the Authority shall appoint an offi cer of the Authority, who is not below the
rank of a Joint Secretary to the Government of India and possessing such qualifi cation and
experience as may be prescribed, to be an Adjudicating Offi cer for holding an inquiry in such
manner as may be prescribed.
(2) No inquiry under sub-section (1) shall be initiated except by a complaint made
by the Authority.
(3) While holding an inquiry, the Adjudicating Offi cer shall—
(a) provide the entity in the Aadhaar ecosystem against whom complaint is
made, an opportunity of being heard;
(b) have the power to summon and enforce the attendance of any person
acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case to give evidence or to produce any
document which, in the opinion of the Adjudicating Offi cer, may be useful for or relevant to the
subject matter of the inquiry.
(4) If the Adjudicating Offi cer, on such inquiry, is satisfi ed that the entity in the Aadhaar
ecosystem has failed to comply with any provision of this Act or the rules or regulations made
thereunder or directions issued by the Authority under section 23A, or has failed to furnish any
information, document, or return of report required by the Authority, the Adjudicating Offi cer
may, by order, impose such penalty under section 33A as he thinks fi t.
33C. (1) The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal established under Appeals to
24 of 1997. section 14 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, shall be Appellate Tribunal Appellate
for the purposes of hearing appeals against the decision of the Adjudicating Offi cer under this Tribunal.
Act.
(2) A person or entity in the Aadhaar ecosystem aggrieved by an order of the
Adjudicating Offi cer under section 33B, may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal within
a period of forty-fi ve days from the date of receipt of the order appealed against, in such form
and manner and accompanied with such fee as may be prescribed:
Provided that the Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of the said
period of forty-fi ve days if it is satisfi ed that there was suffi cient cause for not fi ling it within
that period.
(3) On receipt of an appeal under sub-section (2), the Appellate Tribunal may, after
giving the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it
thinks fi t, confi rming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against.
(4) The Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to the parties
to the appeal and to the Adjudicating Offi cer.
(5) Any appeal fi led under sub-section (2) shall be dealt with by the Appellate
Tribunal as expeditiously as possible and every endeavour shall be made by it to dispose of
the appeal within six months from the date on which it is presented to it.
(6) The Appellate Tribunal may, for the purpose of deciding an appeal before it, call
for the records relevant to disposing of such appeal and make such orders as it thinks fi t.
24 of 1997. 33D. The provisions of sections 14-I to 14K (both inclusive), 16 and 17 of the Telecom Procedure and
Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 shall, mutatis mutandis, apply to the Appellate Tribunal powers of
the Appellate
in the discharge of its functions under this Act, as they apply to it in the discharge of its
Tribunal.
functions under that Act.
33E. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or in Appeal to
any other law for the time being in force, an appeal shall lie against any order, not being an Supreme
Court of India
interlocutory order, of the Appellate Tribunal to the Supreme Court on any substantial question
of law arising out of such order.
(2) No appeal shall lie against any decision or order made by the Appellate Tribunal
which the parties have consented to.312 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(3) Every appeal under this section shall be preferred within a period of forty-fi ve days
from the date of the decision or order appealed against: Provided that the Supreme Court may
entertain an appeal after the expiry of the said period of forty-fi ve days if it is satisfi ed that
there was suffi cient cause for not fi ling it within that period.
33F. No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect
of any matter which an Adjudicating Offi cer appointed under this Act or the Appellate Tribunal
is empowered, by or under this Act to determine, and no injunction shall be granted by any
court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power
conferred by or under this Act.”.
Amendment 16. In section 38 of the principal Act, for the words “three years”, the words “ten years”
of section 38.
shall be substituted.
Amendment of 17. In section 39 of the principal Act, for the words “three years”, the words “ten years”
section 39. shall be substituted.
Substitution of 18. For section 40 of the principal Act, the following section shall be substituted,
new section
namely:—
for section 40.
Penalty for unauth “40. Whoever,—
oriseduse by
(a) being a requesting entity, uses the identity information of an individual in
requesting
entity or offl ine contravention of sub-section (2) of section 8; or
verifi cation
(b) being an offl ine verifi cation-seeking entity, uses the identity information of
seeking entity.
an individual in contravention of sub-section (2) of section 8A,
shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with a fi ne which
may extend to ten thousand rupees or, in the case of a company, with a fi ne which may extend
to one lakh rupees or with both.”.
Amendment of 19. In section 42 of the principal Act, for the words “one year”, the words “three years”
section 42. shall be substituted.
Amendment of 20. In section 47 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), the following proviso shall be
section 47. inserted, namely:—
“Provided that the court may, on a complaint made by an Aadhaar number holder or
individual take cognizance of any off ence punishable under section 34 or 35 or 36 or 37 or
40 or section 41.”.
43 of 1961.
Insertion of new 21. After section 50 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—
section 50A.
“50A. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Income-tax Act, 1961 or any other
Exemption from
tax enactment for the time being in force relating to tax on income, profi ts or gains, the Authority
on income. shall not be liable to pay income-tax or any other tax in respect of its income, profi ts or gains.”.
Amendment 22. In section 51 of the principal Act, for the words “Member, offi cer”, the words “Member
of section 51. or offi cer” shall be substituted.
Amendment of 23. In section 53 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—
section 53.
(i) after clause (a), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
“(aa) the purpose for which the requesting entity may be allowed by the
Authority to perform authentication under sub-clause (ii) of clause (b) of sub-section (4) of
section 4;”;
(ii) after clause (g), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—
“(ga) the qualifi cation and experience of, and the manner of appointment of,
the Adjudicating Offi cer under sub-section (1) of section 33B;
(gb) the form, manner, and fee for an appeal to be fi led under sub-section (2)
of section 33C;”.
Amendment of 24. In section 54 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2),—
section 54.
(i) for clause (a), the following clause shall be substituted, namely:—Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 313
“(a) the entities or group of entities in the Aadhaar ecosystem under clause
(aa), the biometric information under clause (g) and the demographic information under
clause (k), the process of collecting demographic informationand biometric information from
the individuals by enrolling agencies under clause (m), and the modes of offl ine verifi cation of
Aadhaar number holder under clause (pa) of section 2;”;
(ii) after clause (b), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—“
(ba) the manner of generating an alternative virtual identity under sub-section
(4) of section 3;
(bb) the manner in which cancellation of an Aadhaar number may be carried
out under sub-section (2) of section 3A;”;
(iii) after clause (c), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—
“(ca) standards of privacy and security to be complied with by there questing
entities under sub-section (4) of section 4;
(cb) the classifi cation of requesting entities under sub-section (5) of section 4;”;
(iv) after clause (f), the following clauses shall be inserted, namely:—
“(fa) the alternate and viable means of identifi cation of individual under the
proviso to clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 8;
(fb) the manner of obtaining consent under clause (a) of sub-section (2),the
manner of providing information to the individual undergoing offl ine verifi cation under
sub-section (3), and the obligations of offl ine verifi cation-seeking entities under clause (c) of
sub-section (4) of section 8A;”.
Omission of
25. Section 57 of the principal Act shall be omitted.
section 57.
PART III
A(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484) T(cid:3479) T(cid:3472)(cid:3469) I(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3473)(cid:3465)(cid:3478) T(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3469)(cid:3471)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3480)(cid:3472) A(cid:3467)(cid:3484), 1885
26. In section 4 of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, after sub-section (2), the following Amendment
sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:— of section
4 of Act 13
‘(3) Any person who is granted a license under the fi rst proviso tosub-section (1) to of1885.
establish, maintain or work a telegraph within any part of India, shall identify any person to
whom it provides its services by—
18 of 2016. (a) authentication under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other
Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016; or
18 of 2016. (b) offl ine verifi cation under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other
Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016; or
15 of 1967. (c) use of passport issued under section 4 of the Passports Act, 1967; or
(d) use of any other offi cially valid document or modes of identifi cation as may be
notifi ed by the Central Government in this behalf.
(4) If any person who is granted a license under the fi rst proviso to sub-section (1) to
establish, maintain or work a telegraph within any part of India isusing authentication under
clause (a) of sub-section (3) to identify any person to whom it provides its services, it shall
make the other modes of identifi cation under clauses (b) to (d) of sub-section (3) also available
to such person.
(5) The use of modes of identifi cation under sub-section (3) shall be a voluntary choice
of the person who is sought to be identifi ed and no person shall be denied any service for not
having an Aadhaar number.
(6) If, for identifi cation of a person, authentication under clause (a) of sub-section (3) is
used, neither his core biometric information nor the Aadhaar number of the person shall be
stored.
(7) Nothing contained in sub-sections (3), (4) and (5) shall prevent the Central
Government from specifying further safeguards and conditions for compliance by any person314 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
who is granted a license under the fi rst proviso to sub-section (1) in respect of identifi cation of
person to whom it provides its services.
Explanation.—The expressions “Aadhaar number” and “core biometric information” shall 18 of 2016.
have the same meanings as are respectively assigned to them in clauses (a) and (j) of section
2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services)
Act, 2016.’.
PART IV
A(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3483) T(cid:3479) T(cid:3472)(cid:3469) P(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3486)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) O(cid:3470) M(cid:3479)(cid:3478)(cid:3469)(cid:3489)-L(cid:3465)(cid:3485)(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3471) A(cid:3467)(cid:3484), 2002
Insertion of new 27. In Chapter IV of the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 (hereafter in this Part, 15 of 2002.
section 11A. referred to as the principal Act), before section 12, the following section shall be inserted,
namely:—
Verifi cation of ‘11A. (1) Every reporting entity shall verify the identity of its clients and the benefi cial
identity by owner, by—
reporting
entity. (a) authentication under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other 18 of 2016.
Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016 if the reporting entity is a banking company; or
(b) offl ine verifi cation under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other 15 of 1967.
Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016; or
(c) use of passport issued under section 4 of the Passports Act, 1967; or
(d) use of any other offi cially valid document or modes of identifi cation asmay be 18 of 2016.
notifi ed by the Central Government in this behalf:
Provided that the Central Government may, if satisfi ed that a reporting entity other than
banking company, complies with such standards of privacy and security under the Aadhaar
(Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services) Act, 2016, and it is
necessary and expedient to do so, by notifi cation, permit such entity to perform authentication
under clause (a):
Provided further that no notifi cation under the fi rst proviso shall be issued without
18 of 2016.
consultation with the Unique Identifi cation Authority of India established under sub-section
(1) of section 11 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefi ts
and Services) Act, 2016 and the appropriate regulator.
(2) If any reporting entity performs authentication under clause (a) of sub-section (1),
to verify the identity of its client or the benefi cial owner it shall make the other modes of
identifi cation under clauses (b), (c) and (d) of sub-section (1) also available to such client or
the benefi cial owner.
(3) The use of modes of identifi cation under sub-section (1) shall be a voluntary choice of
every client or benefi cial owner who is sought to be identifi ed and no clientor benefi cial owner
shall be denied services for not having an Aadhaar number.
(4) If, for identifi cation of a client or benefi cial owner, authentication or offl ine verifi cation
under clause (a) or clause (b) of sub-section (1) is used, neither his corebiometric information
nor his Aadhaar number shall be stored.
(5) Nothing in this section shall prevent the Central Government from notifying additional
safeguards on any reporting entity in respect of verifi cation of the identity of its client or
benefi cial owner.
Explanation.—The expressions “Aadhaar number” and “core biometric information” shall
have the same meanings as are respectively assigned to them inclauses (a) and (j) of section
2 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefi ts and Services) 18 of 2016.
Act, 2016.’.
Amendment of 28. In section 12 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), clauses (c) and (d) shall be
section 12. omitted.
Amendment of 29. In section 73 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2), clauses (j) and (jj) shall be
section 73. omitted.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 315
Ord. 9 of 2019. 30. (1) The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 is hereby repealed.
Repeal and
savings.
(2) Notwithstanding the repeal of the said Ordinance, anything done or any action
taken under the said Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done or taken under the
corresponding provisions of this Act.
————
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.316 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 317
New Delhi, the 24th July 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 23rd July, 2019,
and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE CENTRAL UNIVERSITIES (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019
No. 15 of 2019
An Act further to amend the Central Universities Act, 2009.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. (1) This Act may be called the Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2019. Short title and
commencement.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notifi cation in the
Offi cial Gazette, appoint.
25 of 2009. 2. After section 3B of the Central Universities Act, 2009 (hereinafter referred to as the Insertion of
principal Act), the following sections shall be inserted, namely:— new sections
3C and 3D.
“3C. There shall be established a University, which shall be a body corporate, to be known Establishment
as the Central University of Andhra Pradesh, having its territorial jurisdiction extending to the of Central
whole of the State of Andhra Pradesh, as specifi ed in the First Schedule to this Act. University
of Andhra
Pradesh.
3D. There shall be established a Tribal University, which shall be a body corporate, Establishment
to be known as the Central Tribal University of Andhra Pradesh, having its territorial jurisdiction of Central
extending to the whole of the State of Andhra Pradesh, as specifi ed in the First Schedule to Tribal
University
this Act, to provide avenues of higher education and research facilities primarily for the tribal
of Andhra
population of India.”.
Pradesh.
3. In section 5 of the principal Act, the following proviso shall be inserted at the end,
Amendment of
namely:— section 5.
“Provided that the Tribal University established under section 3D shall take additional
measures for paying special attention to the tribal centric higher education and research,
including art, culture and customs.”.
4. For the First Schedule to the principal Act, the following Schedule shall be Substitution
substituted, namely:— of new
Schedule
for First
Schedule.
“THE FIRST SCHEDULE
[See section 3(4)]
Serial Name of the
Name of the University Territorial jurisdiction
No. State
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1. Andhra Central University of Andhra Whole of the State of
Pradesh Pradesh Andhra Pradesh.
2. Andhra Central Tribal University Whole of the State of
Pradesh of Andhra Pradesh Andhra Pradesh.
3. Bihar Central University of South Bihar Territory in the south of
the River Ganges in the
State of Bihar.
4. Bihar Mahatma Gandhi Central University Territory in the north of the
River Ganges in the State
of Bihar.318 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Serial Name of the
Name of the University Territorial jurisdiction
No. State
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5. Gujarat Central University of Gujarat Whole of the State of
Gujarat.
6. Haryana Central University of Haryana Whole of the State of
Haryana.
7. Himachal Central University of Whole of the State of
Pradesh Himachal Pradesh Himachal Pradesh.
8. Jammu and Central University of Kashmir Kashmir Division of the
Kashmir State of Jammu and
Kashmir.
9. Jammu and Central University of Jammu Jammu Division of the
Kashmir State of Jammu and
Kashmir.
10. Jharkhand Central University of Jharkhand Whole of the State of
Jharkhand.
11. Karnataka Central University of Karnataka Whole of the State of
Karnataka.
12. Kerala Central University of Kerala Whole of the State of
Kerala.
13. Odisha Central University of Odisha Whole of the State of
Odisha.
14. Punjab Central University of Punjab Whole of the State of
Punjab.
15. Rajasthan Central University of Rajasthan Whole of the State of
Rajasthan.
16. Tamil Nadu Central University of Whole of the State of
Tamil Nadu Tamil Nadu.”.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 319
New Delhi, the 25th July 2019
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 24th July, 2019
and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE NATIONAL INVESTIGATION AGENCY (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019
NO. 16 of 2019
An Act to amend the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. (1) This Act may be called the National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, Short title and
2019. commence-
ment.
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notifi cation Amendment of
in the Offi cial Gazette, appoint. section 1.
2. In the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 (hereinafter referred to as the
34 of 2008. principal Act), in section 1, in sub-section (2),—
(i) in clause (b), the word “and” occurring at the end, shall be omitted;
(ii) in clause (c), after the words “may be”, the word “and” shall be inserted;
(iii) after clause (c), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
“(d) to persons who commit a Scheduled Off ence beyond India against the
Indian citizens or aff ecting the interest of India.”.
3. In section 2 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), in clause (h), for the words “a Amendment of
Special Court constituted”, the words “a Court of Session designated as Special Court” shall section 2.
be substituted.
4. In section 3 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2), after the word “India”, the words Amendment of
“and, subject to any international treaty or domestic law of the concerned country, outside section 3.
India,” shall be inserted.
5. In section 6 of the principal Act, after sub-section (7), the following sub-sections Amendment of
shall be inserted, namely:— section 6.
“(8) Where the Central Government is of the opinion that a Scheduled Off ence has
been committed at any place outside India to which this Act extends, it may direct the Agency to
register the case and take up investigation as if such off ence has been committed in India.
(9) For the purposes of sub-section (8), the Special Court at New Delhi shall have
the jurisdiction.’’.
6. In section 11 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
section 11.
(i) in the marginal heading, for the word “constitute”, the words “designate Court
of Session as” shall be substituted;
(ii) in sub-section (1),—
“(a) for the portion beginning with the words “The Central Government”, and
ending with the words “Special Courts”, the words “The Central Government shall, in consultation
with the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notifi cation in the Offi cial Gazette, for the trial of
Scheduled Off ences, designate one or more Courts of Session as Special Court” shall be
substituted;
(b) the following Explanation shall be inserted, namely:—
‘Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section, the expression “High Court” means
the High Court of the State in which a Court of Session to be designated as Special Court
is functioning.’;
(iii) sub-sections (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) shall be omitted;
(iv) in sub-section (8),—
(a) for the words “by a person appointed as a Judge or an additional Judge of
a Special Court”, the words, brackets and fi gure “by the Sessions Judge of the Court of
Session referred to in sub-section (1)” shall be substituted;320 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(b) for the words “such judge or additional judge and the Central Government”, the
words “judge of the Special Court and the appointing authority in consultation with the Central
Government” shall be substituted;
(c) for the words “as may be specifi ed in that order” occurring at the end, the words
“,whichever is earlier” shall be substituted;
(v) for sub-section (9), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:—
“(9) When more than one Special Court is designated for an area or areas, the senior-
most Judge shall distribute the business among them.”.
Amendment of 7. In section 22 of the principal Act,—
section 22.
(i) in the marginal heading, for the word “constitute”, the words “designate Court
of Session as” shall be substituted;
(ii) in sub-section (1), for the words “constitute one or more”, the words
“designate one or more Courts of Session as” shall be substituted;
(iii) in sub-sections (2), (3) and (4), for the word “constituted” wherever it occurs,
the word “designated” shall be substituted.
Amendment 8. In the Schedule to the principal Act,-—
of Schedule.
(i) for serial number 1 and the entry relating thereto, the following serial numbers and
entries shall be substituted, namely:—
“1. The Explosive Substances Act, 1908 (6 of 1908);
1A. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962 (33 of 1962);”;
(ii) in serial number 3, for the fi gures, brackets and word “1982 (65 of 1982)”, the
fi gures, brackets and word “2016 (30 of 2016)” shall be substituted;
(iii) in serial number 8, for entry (b), the following entries shall be substituted,
namely:—
“(b) Sections 370 and 370A of Chapter XVI of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860);
(c) Sections 489-A to 489-E (both inclusive) of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860);
(d) sub-section (1AA) of section 25 of Chapter V of the Arms Act, 1959 (54 of 1959);
(e) Section 66F of Chapter XI of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (21 of 2000)
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 321
THE NEW DELHI INTERNATIONAL ARBITRATION
CENTRE ACT, 2019.
ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
CHAPTER I
P(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3477)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3489)
S(cid:3469)(cid:3467)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478)(cid:3483)
1. Short title and Commencement.
2. Defi nitions.
CHAPTER II
E(cid:3483)(cid:3484)(cid:3465)(cid:3466)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3472)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) I(cid:3478)(cid:3467)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3480)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) N(cid:3469)(cid:3487) D(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3472)(cid:3473)
I(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3476) A(cid:3482)(cid:3466)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3467)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3469)
3. Establishment and incorporation of New Delhi International Arbitration Centre.
4. Declaration of New Delhi International Arbitration Centre as an institution of
national importance.
5. Composition of Centre.
6. Terms and conditions, etc., of Chairperson and Members.
C· HAPTER Ill
A(cid:3467)(cid:3481)(cid:3485)(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) T(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3483)(cid:3470)(cid:3469)(cid:3482) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) U(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3484)(cid:3465)(cid:3475)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3483)(cid:3465) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) S(cid:3479)(cid:3467)(cid:3473)(cid:3469)(cid:3484)(cid:3489)
7. Transfer and vesting.
8. General eff ect of vesting.
9. Liability prior to specifi ed date.
1 0. Power of Central Government to direct vesting of undertaking in Centre.
11. Management, etc., of undertakings.
12. Duties of persons in charge of management of undertakings to deliver all assets.
13. Certain powers of Central Government or Centre.
14. Objects of Centre.
15. Functions of Centre.
16. Vacancies, etc., not to invalidate proceedings of Centre.
17. Resignation of Members.
18. Removal of Members.
19. Committees of Centre.
20. Meetings of Centre.
21. Chief Executive Offi cer.
22. Delegation of powers.
23. Secretariat.322 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
CHAPTER IV
F(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3467)(cid:3469), A(cid:3467)(cid:3467)(cid:3479)(cid:3485)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3483) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) A(cid:3485)(cid:3468)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)
S(cid:3469)(cid:3467)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478)(cid:3483)
24. Grants by Central Government.
25. Fund of Centre.
26. Accounts and audit.
27. Assessment of assets and liabilities of undertaking.
CHAPTER V
C(cid:3472)(cid:3465)(cid:3477)(cid:3466)(cid:3469)(cid:3482) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) A(cid:3482)(cid:3466)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) A(cid:3482)(cid:3466)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) A(cid:3467)(cid:3465)(cid:3468)(cid:3469)(cid:3477)(cid:3489)
28. Chamber of Arbitration.
29.Arbitration Academy.
CHAPTER VI
M(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3467)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3476)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3469)(cid:3479)(cid:3485)(cid:3483)
30. Power to make rules.
31. Power to make regulations.
32. Laying of rules and regulations.
33. Protection of action taken in good faith.
34. Power to remove diffi culty.
35. Repeal and savings.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 323
New Delhi, the 26th July 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the 26th July,
2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE NEW DELHI INTERNATIONAL ARBITRATION CENTRE ACT, 2019.
No. 17 of 2019
An Act to provide for the establishment and incorporation of the New Delhi International
Arbitration Centre for the purpose of creating an independent and autonomous regime for
institutionalised arbitration and for acquisition and transfer of the undertakings of the International
Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution and to vest such undertakings in the New Delhi
International Arbitration Centre for the better management of arbitration so as to make it a hub
for institutional arbitration and to declare the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre to be an
institution of national importance and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
WHEREAS dispute resolution process has a huge impact on the Indian economy and
global perception on doing business in our country and it has become necessary to inspire
confi dence and credibility among the litigants of commercial disputes;
AND WHEREAS rapidly changing economic activity demands expeditious settlement of
disputes and creation and establishment of institutional arbitration;
21 of 1860 AND WHEREAS the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution was set up in
the year 1995, under the aegis of the Central Government and registered under the Societies
Registration Act, 1860, with the objective of promoting alternative dispute resolution
mechanism and providing facilities for the same;
AND WHEREAS the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution has received land
and substantial funding by way of grants and other benefi ts from the Central Government for
constructing infrastructure and making other facilities;
AND WHEREAS the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution has not been
able to actively engage and embrace developments in the arbitration ecosystem and to create
a reputation par excellence keeping pace with the dynamic nature of arbitration over more than
two decades;
AND WHEREAS studies conducted by the High Level Committee appointed by the Central
Government indicate that the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution has failed to
address the growing needs of the institutional arbitration and also to bear optimum caseload
and to become better choice to the parties for arbitration;
AND WHEREAS it has become expedient to take over the undertakings of the International
Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution including its regional offi ces without interfering with
its activities and without adversely aff ecting its character as a Society but to utilise its existing
infrastructure and other facilities which have been set up by using the public funds provided
by the Government and to incorporate a robust institution for domestic and international
arbitration to be known as the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre;
AND WHEREAS it is considered necessary to declare the New Delhi International
Arbitration Centre as an institution of national importance for its overall development as a
major arbitration hub by promoting quick and effi cient dispute resolution mechanism.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
CHAPTER I
P(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3477)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3489)
1. (1) This Act may be called the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Act, 2019. Short title and
commencement.
(2) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 2nd March, 2019.
2. (1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—
Defi nitions.
(a) “Centre” means the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre established and
incorporated under section 3;324 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(b) “Chairperson” means the Chairperson of the Centre referred to in clause (a) of
section 5;
(c) “Chief Executive Offi cer” means the Chief Executive Offi cer appointed under
section 21;
(d) “Committee” means the relevant Committee of the Centre referred to in
section 19;
(e) “Custodian” means the person who is appointed as Custodian under
sub-section (2) of section 11 in respect of the undertakings;
(f) “Fund” means the Fund of the Centre to be maintained under section 25;
(g) “Member” means Full-time or Part-time Member of the Centre and includes the
Chairperson;
(h) “notifi cation” means a notifi cation published in the Offi cial Gazette;
(i) “prescribed” means prescribed by rules made by the Central Government
under this Act;
(j) “regulations” means regulations made by the Centre under this Act;
(k) “Society” means the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution,
registered as such under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, and having its registered offi ce at 21 of 1860.
New Delhi;
(l) “specifi ed date” means the date as may be specifi ed by the Central Government
by notifi cation;
(m) “undertakings” means the undertakings of the Society which vests with the
Central Government under section 7.
(2) All other words and expressions used herein but not defi ned and defi ned in the
26 of 1996.
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, shall have the same meanings as assigned to them in
that Act.
CHAPTER II
E(cid:3483)(cid:3484)(cid:3465)(cid:3466)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3472)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) I(cid:3478)(cid:3467)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3480)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) N(cid:3469)(cid:3487) D(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3472)(cid:3473) I(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3476) A(cid:3482)(cid:3466)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) C(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3469)
3. (1) The Central Government shall, by notifi cation, establish a body to be called the
Establishment New Delhi International Arbitration Centre for the purposes of exercising the powers and
and discharging the functions under this Act.
incorporation
of New Delhi (2) The Centre shall be a body corporate by the name aforesaid, having perpetual
International succession and a common seal with power, subject to the provisions of this Act, to acquire, hold
Arbitration and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to enter into contract, and shall, by
Centre. the said name, sue or be sued.
4. (1) Whereas, the objects of the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre are such
as to make it as an institution of national importance, it is hereby declared that the New Delhi
Declaration of
New Delhi International Arbitration Centre is an institution of national importance.
International
(2) The head offi ce of the Centre shall be at New Delhi and it may with the previous
Arbitration
approval of the Central Government, establish branches at other places in India and abroad.
Centre as an
institution
of national
importance. 5. The Centre shall consist of the following Members, namely:––
Composition of
(a) a person, who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Judge of a High
Centre.
Court or an eminent person, having special knowledge and experience in the conduct or
administration of arbitration, law or management, appointed by the Central Government
in consultation with the Chief Justice of India––Chairperson;
(b) two eminent persons having substantial knowledge and experience
in institutional arbitration, both domestic and international, appointed by the Central
Government––Full-time Members or Part-time Members;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 325
(c) one representative of a recognised body of commerce and industry, chosen on
rotational basis by the Central Government––Part-time Member;
(d) Secretary, Department of Legal Aff airs, Ministry of Law and Justice or his
representative, not below the rank of the Joint Secretary––Member, ex offi cio;
(e) one Financial Adviser nominated by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of
Finance––Member, ex offi cio; and
(f) Chief Executive Offi cer––Member, ex offi cio.
6. (1) The Chairperson and Members shall hold offi ce for a term of three years from the Terms and
date on which they enter upon their offi ce and shall be eligible for re-appointment: conditions,
etc., of
Provided that no Chairperson or Member shall hold offi ce as such after he has attained the Chairperson
age of seventy years in the case of Chairperson and sixty-seven years in the case of a Member. and Members.
(2) The terms and conditions, salaries and allowances payable to the Chairperson
and Full-time Member shall be such as may be prescribed.
(3) The term of offi ce of a Member appointed to fi ll a casual vacancy shall be for the
remainder of the term of the Member in whose place he has been appointed.
(4) The Part-time Member shall be entitled to such travelling and other allowances
as may be prescribed.
CHAPTER III
A(cid:3467)(cid:3481)(cid:3485)(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) T(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3483)(cid:3470)(cid:3469)(cid:3482) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) U(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3484)(cid:3465)(cid:3475)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3471)(cid:3483) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) S(cid:3479)(cid:3467)(cid:3473)(cid:3469)(cid:3484)(cid:3489)
7. On and from the specifi ed date, so much of the undertakings of the Society as form Transfer and
part of, or are relatable to the Society, and the right, title and interest of the Society in relation to vesting.
such undertakings, shall, by virtue of this Act, stand transferred to, and vest in, the Central
Government.
Ord. 10 of 8. (1) The undertakings vested under section 7 shall be deemed to include all assets, General effect of
2019. rights, leaseholds, powers, authorities and privileges, and all property (movable and vesting.
immovable), including lands, buildings, works, projects, instruments, automobiles and other
vehicles, cash balances, funds, including reserve funds, investments and book debts of the
Society as form part of, or are relatable to, the Society and all other rights and interest arising
out of such properties as were immediately before the commencement of the New Delhi
International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019 in the ownership, possession, power or
control of the Society, and all books of account, registers and all other documents of whatever
nature relating thereto.
(2) All properties and assets as aforesaid which have vested in the Central
Government under section 7 shall, by force of such vesting, be freed and discharged from
any trust, obligation, mortgage, charge, lien and all other encumbrances aff ecting them or
of any attachment, injunction, decree or order of any court or other authority restricting the use
of such properties or assets in any manner or appointing any receiver in respect of the whole
or any part of such properties or assets shall be deemed to have been withdrawn.
(3) Any licence or other instrument granted to the Society in relation to any undertaking
which has vested in the Central Government under section 7 at any time before the specifi ed
date and in force immediately before the specifi ed date, shall continue to be in force on and
after such day in accordance with its tenor in relation to and for the purpose of such
undertaking or where the undertaking is directed under section 10, to vest in the Centre, the
Centre shall be deemed to be substituted in such licence or other instrument as if such
licence or other instrument had been granted to the Centre and the Centre shall hold it for the
remainder of the period which the Society would have held it under the terms thereof.
(4) If, on the specifi ed date, any suit, appeal or other proceeding, of whatever
nature, in relation to any property or asset which has vested in the Central Government
under section 7, instituted or preferred by or against the Society is pending, the same shall
not abate, be discontinued or be, in any way, prejudicially aff ected by reason of the transfer
of the undertaking of the Society of anything contained in this Act, but the suit, appeal or other
proceeding may be continued, prosecuted or enforced by or against the Central Government or
where the undertakings of the Society are directed under section 10, to vest in the Centre, by or
against the Centre.326 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Liability prior 9. Every liability in relation to any undertaking in respect of any period prior to the
to specifi ed specifi ed date, shall be enforceable against the Society and not against the Central
date. Government.
Power of Central 10. (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in sections 7 and 8, the Central Government
Government to shall, as soon as may be after the specifi ed date, direct by notifi cation, that the undertakings
direct vesting and the right, title and interest of the Society in relation to such undertakings which had
of undertaking vested in the Central Government under section 7, shall, vest in the Centre either on the date
in centre. of publication of the notifi cation or on such earlier or later date as may be specifi ed in the
notifi cation.
(2) Where the right, title and interest of the Society in relation to the undertakings
vest, under sub-section (1), in the Centre, the Centre shall, on and from the date of such
vesting, be deemed to have become the owner in relation to such undertakings and the
rights and liabilities of the Central Government in relation to such undertakings shall, on and
from the date of such vesting, be deemed to have become, the rights and liabilities,
respectively, of the Centre.
Management, 11. (1) The general superintendence, direction, control and management of aff airs of
etc., of the undertakings, the right, the interest in relation to which have vested in the Central
undertakings. Government under section 7, shall––
(a) where a direction has been made by the Central Government under
sub-section (1) of section 10, vest in the Centre; or
(b) where no such direction has been made by the Central Government, vest
in the Custodian appointed by the Central Government under sub-section (2),
and, thereupon, the Centre or the Custodian so appointed, as the case may be, shall
be entitled to exercise all such powers and do all such things as the Society, is authorised to
exercise and do in relation to its undertakings.
(2) The Central Government may appoint any person as the Custodian of
the undertakings in relation to which no direction has been made by it under sub-section (1) of
section 10.
(3) The Custodian so appointed shall receive such remuneration as the Central
Government may fi x and shall hold offi ce during the pleasure of the Central Government.
Duties of persons 12. (1) On the vesting of the management of the undertakings in the Centre or on the
in charge of appointment of a Custodian under sub-section (2) of section 11, all persons in charge of
management management of the undertakings immediately before such vesting or appointment shall be
of undertakings bound to deliver to the Centre or Custodian, as the case may be, all assets, books of account,
to deliver all
registers and other documents in their custody relating to the undertakings.
assets.
(2) The Central Government may issue such directions as it may deem desirable in
the circumstances of the case to the Custodian as to the powers and duties of the Custodian and
such Custodian may also, if it is considered necessary so to do, apply to the Central Government at
any time for instructions as to the manner in which the management of the undertaking shall
be conducted or in relation to any other matter arising in the course of such management.
(3) Any person who on the specifi ed date, has in his possession or under his control,
any books, documents or other papers relating to the undertakings shall be liable to account
for the said books, documents or other papers to the Central Government or the Custodian
or the Centre, as the case may be, and shall deliver them to the Central Government or the
Custodian or the Centre or to such person or body of persons as the Central Government or
the Centre may specify in this behalf.
(4) The Central Government or the Centre may take or cause to be taken, all
necessary steps for securing possession of all undertakings which have vested in the
Central Government or the Centre under this Act.
(5) The Society shall, within such period as the Central Government may allow in
this behalf, furnish to that Government a complete inventory of all its properties and assets,
as on the commencement of the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019 Ord. 10 of
pertaining to the undertaking and for this purpose, the Central Government or Custodian or the 2019.
Centre shall aff ord to the Society, or body all reasonable facilities.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 327
13. The Central Government or the Custodian or the Centre shall be entitled to receive Certain powers
up to the specifi ed date, to the exclusion of all other persons, any money due to the Society in of Central
relation to its undertakings which have vested in the Central Government or Custodian or the Government or
Centre.
Centre, as the case may be, and realised after the commencement of the New Delhi
International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019, notwithstanding that the realisation pertains
to a period prior to the commencement of the New Delhi International Arbitration Centre
Ordinance, 2019.
14. The objects of the Centre shall be,–– Objects of
Centre.
(a) to bring targeted reforms to develop itself as a fl agship institution for
conducting international and domestic arbitration;
(b) to promote research and study, providing teaching and training, and
organising conferences and seminars in arbitration, conciliation, mediation and other alternative
dispute resolution matters;
(c) to provide facilities and administrative assistance for conciliation, mediation and
arbitral proceedings;
(d) to maintain panels of accredited arbitrators, conciliators and mediators both at
national and international level or specialists such as surveyors and investigators;
(e) to collaborate with other national and international institutions and
organisations for ensuring credibility of the Centre as a specialised institution in arbitration
and conciliation;
(f) to set up facilities in India and abroad to promote the activities of the Centre;
(g) to lay down parameters for diff erent modes of alternative dispute resolution
mechanisms being adopted by the Centre; and
(h) such other objectives as it may deem fi t with the approval of the Central
Government.
15. Without prejudice to the provisions contained in section 14, the Centre shall Functions of
strive,–– Centre.
(a) to facilitate for conducting international and domestic arbitration and
conciliation in the most professional manner;
(b) to provide cost eff ective and timely services for the conduct of arbitration and
conciliation at national and international level;
(c) to promote studies in the fi eld of alternative dispute resolution and related
matters, and to promote reforms in the system of settlement of disputes;
(d) to undertake teaching and to provide for diff usion of knowledge of law and
procedures on alternative dispute resolution and related matters and to award certifi cates and
other academic or professional distinction;
(e) to impart training in alternative dispute resolution and related matters to those
who are handling arbitration, conciliation and mediation;
(f) to co-operate with other societies, institutions and organisations, national or
international for promoting alternative dispute resolution; and
(g) to perform such other functions as may be entrusted to it by the Central
Government for promoting alternative dispute resolution.
16. No act or proceedings of the Centre shall be invalid merely by reason of,–– Vacancies,
etc., not to
(a) any vacancy or any defect in the constitution of the Centre; or invalidate
proceedings
(b) any defect in the appointment of a person acting as a Member of the Centre; or of Centre.
(c) any irregularity in the procedure of the Centre not aff ecting the merits of the
case.328 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Resignation of 17. The Chairperson or the Full-time Member or Part-time Member may, by notice in
Members. writing, under his hand addressed to the Central Government, resign his offi ce:
Provided that the Chairperson or the Full-time Member shall, unless he is permitted by the
Central Government to relinquish his offi ce sooner, continue to hold offi ce until the expiry
of three months from the date of receipt of such notice or until a person duly appointed as his
successor enters upon his offi ce or until the expiry of his term of offi ce, whichever is the earlier.
Removal of 18. (1) The Central Government may, remove a Member from his offi ce if he,––
Members.
(a) is an undischarged insolvent; or
(b) has engaged at any time (except Part-time Member), during his term of offi ce, in any
paid employment; or
(c) has been convicted of an off ence which, in the opinion of the Central Government,
involves moral turpitude; or
(d) has acquired such fi nancial or other interest as is likely to aff ect prejudicially his
functions as a Member; or
(e) has so abused his position as to render his continuance in offi ce prejudicial to the
public interest; or
(f) has become physically or mentally incapable of acting as a Member.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), no Member shall be
removed from his offi ce on the grounds specifi ed in clauses (d) and (e) of that sub-section
unless the Supreme Court, on a reference being made to it in this behalf by the Central
Government, has, on an inquiry, held by it in accordance with such procedure as may be
prescribed in this behalf by the Supreme Court, reported that the Member, ought on such
ground or grounds to be removed.
Committees of 19. (1) The Centre may constitute such Committees as may be considered necessary to
Centre. administer various aspects of its functions.
(2) The composition and functions of the Committees referred to in sub-section (1)
shall be such as may be prescribed.
(3) The Committee shall meet at such time and at such places and shall observe such
rules of procedure in regard to the transaction of business at its meetings including the
quorum as may be specifi ed by the regulations.
Meetings of 20. (1) The Chairperson shall ordinarily preside at the meetings of the Centre:
Centre.
Provided that, in his absence, the Member chosen by the other Members present
amongst themselves shall preside at the meetings.
(2) It shall be the duty of the Chairperson to ensure that the decisions taken by
the Centre are implemented.
(3) The Chairperson shall exercise such other powers and perform such other
duties as are assigned to him under this Act.
(4) The Centre shall meet at least four times a year and follow such procedure in
its meetings including quorum at such meetings in such manner as may be specifi ed by the
regulations.
(5) All questions which come up before any meeting of the Centre shall be––
(a) decided by a majority of votes by the Members present and voting, and in
the event of an equality of votes, the Chairperson or in his absence, the person presiding,
shall have a casting vote;
(b) dealt with as expeditiously as possible and the Centre shall dispose of
the same within a period of sixty days from the date of receipt of the application:
Provided that where any such application could not be disposed of within the said period
of sixty days, the Centre shall record its reasons in writing for not disposing of the application
within that period.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 329
(6) The Chairperson may invite any expert, not being a Member, to attend the meetings of
the Centre, but such invitee shall not be entitled to vote at the meeting.
21. (1) There shall be a Chief Executive Offi cer of the Centre who shall be responsible for Chief
day-to-day administration of the Centre and for this purpose, he shall maintain liaison with the Executive
Centre and the Secretariat. Officer.
(2) The appointment, qualifi cations and the terms and conditions of services of the
Chief Executive Offi cer shall be such as may be specifi ed by the regulations.
(3) The Chief Executive Offi cer shall exercise such powers and discharge such functions as
may be specifi ed by the regulations or as may be delegated to him by the Centre.
22. The Centre may, for the purpose of discharging of its powers, functions and Delegation of
duties, by general or special order in writing, specify the powers and duties conferred or powers.
imposed upon the Centre by or under this Act (except the power to make regulation) which
may also be exercised or performed by the Chief Executive Offi cer or any offi cer or offi cers of the
Centre and the conditions and restrictions, if any, subject to which the powers and duties
may be exercised and performed.
23. (1) There shall be a Secretariat to the Centre consisting of–– Secretariat.
(a) Registrar, who shall supervise the activities of the Centre;
(b) Counsel, dealing with the matters relating to domestic and international arbitration;
and
(c) such number of other offi cers and employees as may be prescribed.
(2) The qualifi cations, experience, method of selection and the functions of the Registrar,
Counsel and other offi cers and employees shall be such as may be prescribed.
CHAPTER IV
F(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3467)(cid:3469), A(cid:3467)(cid:3467)(cid:3479)(cid:3485)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3483) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) A(cid:3485)(cid:3468)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)
24. The Central Government may, after due appropriation made by Parliament by law in this Grants by Central
behalf, pay to the Centre in each fi nancial year such sums of money and in such manner as it Government.
may think fi t for being utilised for the purposes of this Act.
25. (1) The Centre shall maintain a Fund to which shall be credited,— Fund of Centre.
(a) all monies provided by the Central Government;
(b) all fees and other charges received during or in connection with the arbitration,
conciliation, mediation or other proceedings;
(c) all monies received by the Centre for the facilities provided by it to the
parties;
(d) all monies received by the Centre in the form of donations, grants,
contributions and income from other sources; and
(e) the amount received from the investment income.
(2) All monies credited to the Fund shall be deposited in such banks or invested
in such manner as may be decided by the Centre.
(3) The Fund shall be applied towards meeting the salaries and other allowances
of Members and the expenses of the Centre including expenses incurred in the exercise of its
powers and discharge of its duties under this Act.
26. (1) The Centre shall maintain proper accounts and other relevant records and Accounts and
prepare an annual statement of accounts, including the balance sheet, in such form and audit.
manner as may be prescribed in consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India.
(2) The accounts of the Centre shall be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India and any expenditure incurred by him in connection with such audit shall be
payable by the Centre to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.330 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(3) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and any person appointed by him
in connection with the audit of the accounts of the Centre shall have the same rights, privileges
and authority in connection with such audit as the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has
in connection with the audit of the Government accounts, and, in particular, shall have the right
to demand the production of books, accounts, connected vouchers and other documents
and papers and to inspect the offi ces of the Centre.
(4) The accounts of the Centre as certifi ed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General
of India or any other person appointed by him in this behalf together with the audit report
thereon shall be forwarded annually to the Central Government and the Central Government
shall cause the same to be laid before each House of Parliament.
Assessment of 27. The assets and liabilities in relation to any undertaking under this Act shall be
assets and caused to be assessed by any agency authorised by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of
liabilities of India in such manner as may be specifi ed by him and any payment on a claim to be made in
undertaking. relation thereto shall be settled by him between the Society and the Central Government and
shall be paid by the Society or the Central Government, as the case may be, in the manner as
may be specifi ed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
CHAPTER V
C(cid:3472)(cid:3465)(cid:3477)(cid:3466)(cid:3469)(cid:3482) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) A(cid:3482)(cid:3466)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) A(cid:3482)(cid:3466)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) A(cid:3467)(cid:3465)(cid:3468)(cid:3469)(cid:3477)(cid:3489)
Chamber of 28. (1) The Centre shall, establish a Chamber of Arbitration which shall empanel the
Arbitration. Arbitrators and also scrutinise the applications for admission in the panel of reputed
arbitrators to maintain a permanent panel of arbitrators.
(2) The Chamber of Arbitration shall consist of experienced arbitration practitioners
of repute, at national and international level and persons having wide experience in the area of
alternative dispute resolution and conciliation.
(3) The Centre shall by regulations lay down the criteria for admission to the panel
of the cadre so as to maintain a pool of reputed arbitrators having expertise in international
commercial arbitration and arbitration other than international commercial arbitration.
(4) The Registrar to the Secretariat of the Centre shall act as the Member-Secretary
to the Chamber of Arbitration.
Arbitration 29. (1) The Centre may establish an Arbitration Academy––
Academy.
(a) to train the arbitrators, particularly in the area of international commercial
arbitration to compete on par with the reputed international arbitral institutions;
(b) to conduct research in the area of alternative dispute resolution and allied
areas; and
(c) to give suggestions for achieving the objectives of the Act.
(2) For the purposes of sub-section (1), there may be constituted a permanent three
member committee in order to suggest and to submit a report to the Centre with respect to the
amendments, if any, necessary to the rules and regulations made under this Act.
CHAPTER VI
M(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3467)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3476)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3469)(cid:3479)(cid:3485)(cid:3483)
Power to make 30. (1) The Central Government may, by notifi cation, make rules to carry out the
rules. provisions of this Act.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such
rules may make provision for—
(a) the terms and conditions and the salaries and allowances payable to
the Chairperson and Full-time Members under sub-section (2) of section 6;
(b) the travelling and other allowances payable to the Part-time Members
under sub-section (4) of section 6;
(c) the composition and functions of the Committees referred to in sub-section
(2) of section 19;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 331
(d) the number of offi cers and employees of the Secretariat of the Centre
under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 23;
(e) the qualifi cations, experience, method of selection and the functions
of the Registrar, Counsel and other offi cers and employees of the Centre under
sub-section (2) of section 23;
(f) annual statement of accounts, including the balance sheet under
sub-section (1) of section 26; and
(g) any other matter in respect of which provision is to be made or may be
made under this Act.
31. (1) The Centre may, with the previous approval of the Central Government, by Power to make
notifi cation, make regulations consistent with this Act and the rules made thereunder to rules.
provide for all matters for which provision is necessary or expedient for the purposes of
giving eff ect to the purposes of this Act.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such
regulations may make provision for––
(a) the time and place and the rules of procedure to be observed in regard
to the transaction of business of the Committee at the meetings including the quorum under
sub-section (3) of section 19;
(b) the time and place and rules of procedure in regard to the transaction
of business of the Centre or any Committee including the quorum at the meeting under
sub-section (4) of section 20;
(c) the appointment, qualifi cations and the terms and conditions of service of
the Chief Executive Offi cer under sub-section (2) of section 21;
(d) the powers and functions of the Chief Executive Officer under
sub-section (3) of section 21;
(e) the criteria for admission to the panel of reputed arbitrators under
sub-section (3) of section 28; and
(f) any other matter in respect of which provision, in the opinion of the Centre,
is necessary for the performance of its functions under this Act.
32. Every rule and regulation made under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it Laying of
is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of thirty days rules and
which may be comprised in one session or in two or more successive sessions, and if, before regulations.
the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the successive sessions aforesaid,
both Houses agree in making any modifi cation in the rule or regulation or both Houses agree
that the rule or regulation should not be made, the rule or regulation shall thereafter have
eff ect only in such modifi ed form or be of no eff ect, as the case may be; so, however, that any
such modifi cation or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously
done under that rule or regulation.
33. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings shall lie against the Centre, the Protection of
Chairperson or Members or its employees and arbitrators for anything which is in good faith action taken
done or intended to be done under this Act or the rules or regulations made thereunder. in good
faith.
34. (1) If any diffi culty arises in giving eff ect to the provisions of this Act, the Central Power to
Government may, by order published in the Offi cial Gazette, make such provisions, not remove
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as may appear to it to be necessary for removing the diffi culty.
diffi culty:
Provided that no such order shall be made under this section after the expiry of a
period of two years from the date of commencement of this Act.
(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made,
before each House of Parliament.
Ord. 10 of 35. (1) The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019 is hereby Repeal and
2019 repealed. savings.332 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken under the New Delhi
Ord. 10 of
2019 International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019, shall be deemed to have been done or taken
under the provisions of this Act.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 333
New Delhi, the 26th July 2019
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
26th July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE APPROPRIATION (No. 2) ACT, 2019
No. 18 of 2019
An Act to authorise payment and appropriation of certain sums from and out of the
Consolidated Fund of India for the services of the fi nancial year 2019-20.
BE it enacted by Parliament in the SeventiethYear of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. This Act may be called the Appropriation (No. 2) Act, 2019. Short title.
2. From and out of the Consolidated Fund of India there may be paid and applied Issue of Rs.
sums not exceeding those specified in column 3 of the Schedule amounting in the aggregate 9818903,82,00,000
out of the
to the sum of ninety-eight lakh eighteen thousand nine hundred three crore and eighty-two
Consolidated
lakh rupees towards defraying the several charges which will come in course of payment
Fund of India
during the financial year 2019-20 in respect of the services specified in column 2 of the for the
Schedule. financial year
2019-20.
3. The sums authorised to be paid and applied from and out of the Consolidated Fund Appropriation.
of India by this Act shall be appropriated for the services and purposes expressed in the
Schedule in relation to the said year.
4. References to Ministries or Departments in the Schedule are to such Ministries or Construction
Departments as existing immediately before the 19th June, 2019 and shall, on or after that of references
to Ministries
date, be construed as references to the appropriate Ministries or Departments as reconstituted
or
from time to time.
Departments
in the
Schedule.334 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
THE SCHEDULE
(See sections 2 and 3)
1 2 3
No. Sums not exceeding
of Services and purposes Voted Charged
Vote by Parliament on the Total
Consolidated
Fund
Rs. Rs. Rs.
1 Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers’
Welfare............................................................................Revenue 130450,51,00,000 ... 130450,51,00,000
Capital 34,70,00,000 ... 34,70,00,000
2 Department of Agricultural Research and Education.....Revenue 8078,76,00,000 ... 8078,76,00,000
3 Atomic Energy...................................................................Revenue 14957,52,00,000 1,00,00,000 14958,52,00,000
Capital 9399,37,00,000 10,00,00,000 9409,37,00,000
4 Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani,
Siddha and Homeopathy (AYUSH)..................................Revenue 2445,55,00,000 ... 2445,55,00,000
Capital 21,00,000 ... 21,00,000
5 Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals ..............Revenue 263,65,00,000 ... 263,65,00,000
6 Department of Fertilisers..................................................Revenue 83514,95,00,000 ... 83514,95,00,000
Capital 5,00,000 ... 5,00,000
7 Department of Pharmaceuticals.......................................Revenue 230,45,00,000 ... 230,45,00,000
Capital 5,06,00,000 ... 5,06,00,000
8 Ministry of Civil Aviation.................................................Revenue 4474,99,00,000 ... 4474,99,00,000
Capital 25,01,00,000 ... 25,01,00,000
9 Ministry of Coal.................................................................Revenue 1159,05,00,000 ... 1159,05,00,000
10 Department of Commerce................................................Revenue 5709,31,00,000 1,00,000 5709,32,00,000
Capital 510,00,00,000 ... 510,00,00,000
11 Deparment for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade................................................................................Revenue 5001,79,00,000 ... 5001,79,00,000
Capital 672,72,00,000 ... 672,72,00,000
12 Department of Posts..........................................................Revenue 30411,20,00,000 80,00,000 30412,00,00,000
Capital 947,74,00,000 ... 947,74,00,000
13 Department of Telecommunications...............................Revenue 30693,64,00,000 ... 30693,64,00,000
Capital 9719,72,00,000 ... 9719,72,00,000
14 Department of Consumer Affairs.....................................Revenue 2240,32,00,000 ... 2240,32,00,000
Capital 51,50,00,000 ... 51,50,00,000
15 Department of Food and Public Distribution..................Revenue 190914,27,00,000 ... 190914,27,00,000
Capital 51326,12,00,000 ... 51326,12,00,000
16 Ministry of Corporate Affairs...........................................Revenue 570,34,00,000 ... 570,34,00,000
Capital 41,00,00,000 ... 41,00,00,000
17 Ministry of Culture.............................................................Revenue 2953,21,00,000 ... 2953,21,00,000
Capital 89,14,00,000 ... 89,14,00,000
18 Ministry of Defence (Civil)..............................................Revenue 27270,00,00,000 66,00,000 27270,66,00,000
Capital 6932,85,00,000 35,00,00,000 6967,85,00,000
19 Defence Services (Revenue)..............................................Revenue 222254,47,00,000 102,92,00,000 222357,39,00,000
20 Capital Outlay on Defence Services Capital 103310,96,00,000 83,35,00,000 103394,31,00,000
21 Defence Pensions...............................................................Revenue 112077,11,00,000 2,46,00,000 112079,57,00,000
22 Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region .....Revenue 2292,80,00,000 ... 2292,80,00,000
Capital 767,20,00,000 ... 767,20,00,000
23 Ministry of Earth Sciences................................................Revenue 1765,05,00,000 ... 1765,05,00,000
Capital 141,00,00,000 ... 141,00,00,000
24 Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology..Revenue 6306,00,00,000 ... 6306,00,00,000
Capital 348,00,00,000 ... 348,00,00,000
25 Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change..Revenue 2998,20,00,000 ... 2998,20,00,000
Capital 64,52,00,000 ... 64,52,00,000
2Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 335
1 2 3
No. Sums not exceeding
of Services and purposes Voted Charged
Vote by Parliament on the Total
Consolidated
Fund
Rs. Rs. Rs.
26 Ministry of External Affairs.............................................Revenue 16511,20,00,000 3,00,000 16511,23,00,000
Capital 1373,55,00,000 ... 1373,55,00,000
27 Department of Economic Affairs.....................................Revenue 3211,46,00,000 ... 3211,46,00,000
Capital 17208,97,00,000 ... 17208,97,00,000
28 Department of Expenditure..............................................Revenue 400,55,00,000 ... 400,55,00,000
29 Department of Financial Services....................................Revenue 1305,16,00,000 ... 1305,16,00,000
Capital 73935,04,00,000 ... 73935,04,00,000
30 Department of Investment and Public Asset
Management (DIPAM)..................................................Revenue 132,08,00,000 ... 132,08,00,000
31 Department of Revenue....................................................Revenue 203457,98,00,000 2,00,000 203458,00,00,000
Capital 8,73,00,000 ... 8,73,00,000
32 Direct Taxes........................................................................Revenue 7036,44,00,000 ... 7036,44,00,000
Capital 302,00,00,000 ... 302,00,00,000
33 Indirect Taxes.....................................................................Revenue 7493,15,00,000 50,00,000 7493,65,00,000
Capital 406,85,00,000 ... 406,85,00,000
34 Indian Audit and Accounts Department...........................Revenue 4832,22,00,000 177,69,00,000 5009,91,00,000
Capital 16,00,00,000 ... 16,00,00,000
CHARGED.—Interest Payments............................................Revenue ... 673470,60,00,000 673470,60,00,000
CHARGED.—Repayment of Debt.............................................Capital ... 5983187,09,00,000 5983187,09,00,000
37 Pensions...............................................................................Revenue 49184,90,00,000 380,10,00,000 49565,00,00,000
38 Transfers to States.............................................................Revenue 32480,00,00,000 120466,22,00,000 152946,22,00,000
Capital ... 19823,28,00,000 19823,28,00,000
39 Department of Fisheries....................................................Revenue 790,58,00,000 ... 790,58,00,000
Capital 14,17,00,000 ... 14,17,00,000
40 Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying............Revenue 3301,01,00,000 ... 3301,01,00,000
Capital 41,64,00,000 ... 41,64,00,000
41 Ministry of Food Processing Industries...........................Revenue 1196,60,00,000 ... 1196,60,00,000
42 Department of Health and Family Welfare....................Revenue 90145,25,00,000 ... 90145,25,00,000
Capital 2890,20,00,000 ... 2890,20,00,000
43 Department of Health Research.......................................Revenue 3374,65,00,000 ... 3374,65,00,000
44 Department of Heavy Industry........................................Revenue 980,74,00,000 ... 980,74,00,000
Capital 386,26,00,000 ... 386,26,00,000
45 Department of Public Enterprises....................................Revenue 22,64,00,000 ... 22,64,00,000
46 Ministry of Home Affairs..................................................Revenue 4584,39,00,000 2,00,000 4584,41,00,000
Capital 311,40,00,000 ... 311,40,00,000
47 Cabinet.................................................................................Revenue 828,85,00,000 ... 828,85,00,000
48 Police...................................................................................Revenue 88707,75,00,000 7,49,00,000 88715,24,00,000
Capital 10811,89,00,000 6,33,00,000 10818,22,00,000
49 Andaman and Nicobar Islands...........................................Revenue 4285,99,00,000 1,00,000 4286,00,00,000
Capital 601,58,00,000 ... 601,58,00,000
50 Chandigarh ..........................................................................Revenue 4309,48,00,000 42,01,00,000 4351,49,00,000
Capital 376,63,00,000 25,00,00,000 401,63,00,000
51 Dadra and Nagar Haveli.....................................................Revenue 867,82,00,000 1,00,000 867,83,00,000
Capital 317,06,00,000 ... 317,06,00,000
52 Daman and Diu...................................................................Revenue 1575,98,00,000 2,00,000 1576,00,00,000
Capital 342,48,00,000 ... 342,48,00,000
53 Lakshadweep.......................................................................Revenue 1117,11,00,000 ... 1117,11,00,000
Capital 186,38,00,000 ... 186,38,00,000
54 Transfers to Delhi..............................................................Revenue 812,00,00,000 ... 812,00,00,000
Capital 300,00,00,000 ... 300,00,00,000336 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
1 2 3
No. Sums not exceeding
of Services and purposes Voted Charged
Vote by Parliament on the Total
Consolidated
Fund
Rs. Rs. Rs.
55 Transfers to Pudducherry..................................................Revenue 1600,99,00,000 ... 1600,99,00,000
Capital 1,00,000 ... 1,00,000
56 Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs............................Revenue 35421,29,00,000 91,81,00,000 35513,10,00,000
Capital 19472,42,00,000 71,92,00,000 19544,34,00,000
57 Department of School Education and Literacy..............Revenue 97585,76,00,000 ... 97585,76,00,000
58 Department of Higher Education.....................................Revenue 52058,84,00,000 ... 52058,84,00,000
Capital 2120,00,00,000 ... 2120,00,00,000
59 Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.....................Revenue 4361,67,00,000 ... 4361,67,00,000
Capital 13,54,00,000 ... 13,54,00,000
60 Department of Water Resources, River Development
and Ganga Rejuvenation....................................................Revenue 7890,15,00,000 ... 7890,15,00,000
Capital 414,46,00,000 1,00,000 414,47,00,000
61 Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation..............Revenue 27766,70,00,000 ... 27766,70,00,000
62 Ministry of Labour and Employment..............................Revenue 11151,65,00,000 ... 11151,65,00,000
Capital 32,44,00,000 ... 32,44,00,000
63 Law and Justice...................................................................Revenue 3020,11,00,000 ... 3020,11,00,000
Capital 135,00,00,000 ... 135,00,00,000
64 Election Commission.........................................................Revenue 261,68,00,000 ... 261,68,00,000
Capital 25,00,00,000 ... 25,00,00,000
CHARGED.—Supreme Court of India..................................Revenue ... 269,46,00,000 269,46,00,000
66 Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises........Revenue 6984,27,00,000 ... 6984,27,00,000
Capital 27,02,00,000 ... 27,02,00,000
67 Ministry of Mines ..............................................................Revenue 1717,98,00,000 ... 1717,98,00,000
Capital 107,57,00,000 ... 107,57,00,000
68 Ministry of Minority Affairs ............................................Revenue 4599,98,00,000 ... 4599,98,00,000
Capital 100,02,00,000 ... 100,02,00,000
69 Ministry of New and Renewable Energy..........................Revenue 5209,83,00,000 ... 5209,83,00,000
Capital 45,00,00,000 ... 45,00,00,000
70 Ministry of Panchayati Raj...............................................Revenue 871,37,00,000 ... 871,37,00,000
71 Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs...................................Revenue 19,38,00,000 ... 19,38,00,000
72 Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions..Revenue 1483,71,00,000 96,99,00,000 1580,70,00,000
Capital 139,24,00,000 6,65,00,000 145,89,00,000
CHARGED.—Central Vigilance Commission.......................Revenue ... 35,55,00,000 35,55,00,000
74 Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas...........................Revenue 42440,78,00,000 ... 42440,78,00,000
Capital 1667,31,00,000 ... 1667,31,00,000
75 Ministry of Planning..........................................................Revenue 582,29,00,000 ... 582,29,00,000
Capital 1,11,00,000 ... 1,11,00,000
76 Ministry of Power..............................................................Revenue 18956,36,00,000 ... 18956,36,00,000
Capital 3365,92,00,000 ... 3365,92,00,000
CHARGED.—Staff, Household and Allowances of the
President..........................................................................Revenue ... 76,33,00,000 76,33,00,000
78 Lok Sabha............................................................................Revenue 807,83,00,000 1,30,00,000 809,13,00,000
79 Rajya Sabha.........................................................................Revenue 399,52,00,000 1,52,00,000 401,04,00,000
80 Secretariat of the Vice-President......................................Revenue 8,30,00,000 ... 8,30,00,000
CHARGED.—Union Public Service Commission................Revenue ... 298,45,00,000 298,45,00,000
82 Ministry of Railways..........................................................Revenue 272235,40,00,000 474,28,00,000 272709,68,00,000
Capital 227394,24,00,000 36,31,00,000 227430,55,00,000
83 Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.....................Revenue 21619,82,00,000 ... 21619,82,00,000
Capital 142819,16,00,000 10,00,00,000 142829,16,00,000
84 Department of Rural Development.................................Revenue 191770,34,00,000 ... 191770,34,00,000
Capital 100,00,00,000 ... 100,00,00,000Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 337
1 2 3
No. Sums not exceeding
of Services and purposes Voted Charged
Vote by Parliament on the Total
Consolidated
Fund
Rs. Rs. Rs.
85 Department of Land Resources........................................Revenue 2227,24,00,000 ... 2227,24,00,000
86 Department of Science and Technology.........................Revenue 5510,09,00,000 2,00,000 5510,11,00,000
Capital 90,00,00,000 ... 90,00,00,000
87 Department of Biotechnology .........................................Revenue 2580,34,00,000 ... 2580,34,00,000
88 Department of Scientific and Industrial Research..........Revenue 4886,24,00,000 ... 4886,24,00,000
Capital 9,65,00,000 ... 9,65,00,000
89 Ministry of Shipping..........................................................Revenue 1955,99,00,000 ... 1955,99,00,000
Capital 526,57,00,000 ... 526,57,00,000
90 Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship ..Revenue 2926,11,00,000 ... 2926,11,00,000
Capital 63,10,00,000 ... 63,10,00,000
91 Department of Social Justice and Empowerment...........Revenue 8429,99,00,000 ... 8429,99,00,000
Capital 455,01,00,000 ... 455,01,00,000
92 Department of Empowerment of Persons with
Disabilities.......................................................................Revenue 1163,69,00,000 ... 1163,69,00,000
Capital 41,21,00,000 ... 41,21,00,000
93 Department of Space.........................................................Revenue 5874,12,00,000 60,00,000 5874,72,00,000
Capital 6598,14,00,000 40,00,000 6598,54,00,000
94 Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation..Revenue 5216,33,00,000 ... 5216,33,00,000
Capital 14,73,00,000 ... 14,73,00,000
95 Ministry of Steel.................................................................Revenue 241,29,00,000 ... 241,29,00,000
96 Ministry of Textiles...........................................................Revenue 4800,57,00,000 ... 4800,57,00,000
Capital 30,91,00,000 ... 30,91,00,000
97 Ministry of Tourism...........................................................Revenue 2189,21,00,000 ... 2189,21,00,000
Capital 1,00,000 ... 1,00,000
98 Ministry of Tribal Affairs..................................................Revenue 1155,69,00,000 5659,27,00,000 6814,96,00,000
Capital 80,00,00,000 ... 80,00,00,000
99 Ministry of Women and Child Development .................Revenue 29664,89,00,000 ... 29664,89,00,000
Capital 1,00,000 ... 1,00,000
100 Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports...............................Revenue 2181,90,00,000 ... 2181,90,00,000
Capital 35,02,00,000 ... 35,02,00,000
TOTAL: 3013950,33,00,000 6804953,49,00,000 9818903,82,00,000
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.338 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 339
New Delhi, the 27th July 2019
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
27th July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019
No. 19 of 2019
An Act further to amend the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
1. (1) This Act may be called the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Short title and
commen-
(2) It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by
cement.
notifi cation in the Offi cial Gazette, appoint.
10 of 1994. 2. In the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (hereinafter referred to as the principal Amendment of
Act), in section 2, in sub-section (1),–– Section 2.
(i) after clause (b), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
‘(ba) “Chief Commissioner” means the Chief Commissioner for Persons with
Disabilities referred to in sub-section (1) of section 74 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
49 of 2016. Act, 2016;’;
(ii) after clause (g), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
‘(ga) “National Commission for Backward Classes” means the National
Commission for Backward Classes constituted under section 3 of the National Commission
27 of 1993. for Backward Classes Act, 1993;’;
(iii) after clause (h), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:—
4 of 2006. ‘(ha) “National Commission for Protection of Child Rights” means the
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights constituted under section 3 of the
Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005;’.
3. In section 3 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
Section 3.
(a) in sub-section (2),—
(i) in clause (a), for the words “Chief Justice”, the words “Chief Justice of India or a
Judge” shall be substituted;
(ii) in clause (d), for the words “two Members”, the words “three Members,out of
which at least one shall be a woman,” shall be substituted;
(b) in sub-section (3),—
(i) for the words “the National Commission for Minorities”, the words “, the National
Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for Minorities, the National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights” shall be substituted;
(ii) for the words “and the National Commission for Women”, the words “the National
Commission for Women and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities” shall be
substituted;
(c) in sub-section (4), for the portion beginning with “shall exercise such powers and
discharge such functions” and ending with “as the case may be”, the following shall be
substituted, namely:—
“shall, subject to control of the Chairperson, exercise all administrativeand fi nancial
powers (except judicial functions and the power to make regulations under section 40B).”.340 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Amendment of 4. In section 6 of the principal Act,—
Section 6.
(i) in sub-section (1),—
(a) for the words “fi ve years”, the words “three years” shall be substituted;
(b) after the words “whichever is earlier” occurring at the end, the words“and
shall be eligible for re-appointment” shall be inserted;
(ii) in sub-section (2),—
(a) for the words “fi ve years”, the words “three years” shall be substituted;
(b) the words “for another term of fi ve years” shall be omitted.
Amendment of 5. In section 21 of the principal Act,—
Section 21.
(i) in sub-section (2), in clause (a), for the words “Chief Justice”, the words “Chief
Justice or a Judge” shall be substituted;
(ii) in sub-section (3), for the words “shall exercise such powers and discharge
such functions of the State Commission as it may delegate to him”, the words “shall, subject
to control of the Chairperson, exercise all administrative and fi nancial powers of the State
Commission” shall be substituted;
(iii) after sub-section (6), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—
“(7) Subject to the provisions of section 12, the Central Government may,
by order, confer upon the State Commission the functions relating to human rights being
discharged by the Union territories, other than the Union territory of Delhi.
(8) The functions relating to human rights in case of Union territory of Delhi
shall be dealt with by the Commission.”.
Amendment of 6. In section 24 of the principal Act,—
Section 24.
(i) in sub-section (1),—
(a) for the words “fi ve years”, the words “three years” shall be substituted;
(b) after the words “whichever is earlier” occurring at the end, the words “and
shall be eligible for re-appointment” shall be inserted;
(ii) in sub-section (2),––
(a) for the words “fi ve years”, the words “three years” shall be substituted;
(b) the words “for another term of fi ve years” occurring at the end, shall be
omitted.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 341
New Delhi, the 31st July 2019
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
31st July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE MUSLIM WOMEN (PROTECTION OF RIGHTS ON MARRIAGE) ACT, 2019
No. 20 of 2019
An Act to protect the rights of married Muslim women and to prohibit divorce by
pronouncing talaq by their husbands and to provide for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
CHAPTER I
P(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3477)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3489)
1. (1) This Act may be called the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Short title,
Act, 2019. extent and
commence-
(2) It shall extend to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir. ment.
(3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 19th day of September,
2018.
Defi nitions.
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,—
(a) “electronic form” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (r) of
21 of 2000. sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000;
(b) “Magistrate” means a Judicial Magistrate of the fi rst class exercising jurisdiction
2 of 1974. under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, in the area where the married Muslim woman
resides; and
(c) “talaq” means talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq having the eff ect
of instantaneous and irrevocable divorce pronounced by a Muslim husband.
CHAPTER II
D(cid:3469)(cid:3467)(cid:3476)(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) O(cid:3470) T(cid:3465)(cid:3476)(cid:3465)(cid:3481) T(cid:3479) B(cid:3469) V(cid:3479)(cid:3473)(cid:3468) A(cid:3478)(cid:3468) I(cid:3476)(cid:3476)(cid:3469)(cid:3471)(cid:3465)(cid:3476)
3. Any pronouncement of talaq by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either Talaq to be void
and illegal.
spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be void and
illegal.
Punishment for
4. Any Muslim husband who pronounces talaq referred to in section 3 upon his wife
pronouncing
shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, and shall
talaq.
also be liable to fi ne.
CHAPTER III
P(cid:3482)(cid:3479)(cid:3484)(cid:3469)(cid:3467)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) O(cid:3470) R(cid:3473)(cid:3471)(cid:3472)(cid:3484)(cid:3483) O(cid:3470) M(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3482)(cid:3473)(cid:3469)(cid:3468) M(cid:3485)(cid:3483)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3477) W(cid:3479)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)
5. Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions contained in any other law Subsistence
for the time being in force, a married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced shall allowance.
be entitled to receive from her husband such amount of subsistence allowance, for her and
dependent children, as may be determined by the Magistrate.
6. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, Custody
a married Muslim woman shall be entitled to custody of her minor children in the event of of minor
pronouncement of talaq by her husband, in such manner as may be determined by the children.
Magistrate.342 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Off ence to be 7. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,— 2 of 1974.
cognizable,
compound- (a) an off ence punishable under this Act shall be cognizable, if information relating
able, etc. to the commission of the off ence is given to an offi cer in charge of a police station by the
married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced or any person related to her by blood
or marriage;
(b) an off ence punishable under this Act shall be compoundable, at the instance
of the married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced with the permission of the
Magistrate, on such terms and conditions as he may determine;
(c) no person accused of an off ence punishable under this Act shall be released
on bail unless the Magistrate, on an application fi led by the accused and after hearing the
married Muslim woman upon whom talaq is pronounced, is satisfi ed that there are reasonable
grounds for granting bail to such person.
Repeal and 8. (1) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Second Ordinance,
savings. 2019 is hereby repealed. Ord. 4 of 2019.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken under the
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Second Ordinance, 2019, shall be deemed Ord. 4 of 2019.
to have been done or taken under the provisions of this Act.
D(cid:3482). G. N(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3465)(cid:3489)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3465) R(cid:3465)(cid:3474)(cid:3485),
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 343
THE BANNING OF UNREGULATED DEPOSIT SCHEMES ACT’ 2019
ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
CHAPTER 1
P(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3473)(cid:3477)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3482)(cid:3489)
SECTIONS
1. Short title, extent and commencent.
2. Defi nitions.
CHAPTER II
B(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3478)(cid:3473)(cid:3478)(cid:3471) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) U(cid:3478)(cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3471)(cid:3485)(cid:3476)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3469)(cid:3468) D(cid:3469)(cid:3480)(cid:3479)(cid:3483)(cid:3473)(cid:3484) S(cid:3467)(cid:3472)(cid:3469)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3483)
3. Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes.
4. Fradulent default in Regulated Deposit Schemes.
5. Wrongful inducement in relation to unregfulated Deposit Schemes.
6. Certain scheme to be unregulated Deposit.
CHAPTER III
A(cid:3485)(cid:3484)(cid:3472)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3469)(cid:3483)
7. Competent Authority
8. Designated Court
CHAPTER IV
I(cid:3478)(cid:3470)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3477)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3479)(cid:3478) D(cid:3469)(cid:3480)(cid:3479)(cid:3483)(cid:3473)(cid:3484) T(cid:3465)(cid:3475)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3483)
9. Central database
10. Information of business by deposit taker.
11. Information to be shared.
CHAPTER V
R(cid:3469)(cid:3483)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3485)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) D(cid:3469)(cid:3480)(cid:3479)(cid:3483)(cid:3473)(cid:3484)(cid:3479)(cid:3482)(cid:3483)
12. Priority of depositors’ claim
13. Precedence of attachment.
14. Application for confi rmation of attachment and sale of property.
15. Confi rmation of attachment by Designated Court
16. Attachment of property of mala fi de transferees.
17. Payment in lieu of attachment.
18. Powers of Designated Court.
19. Appeal to High Court.
20. Power of Supreme Court to transfer cases.344 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
CHAPTER VI
O(cid:3470)(cid:3470)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3467)(cid:3469)(cid:3483) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) P(cid:3485)(cid:3478)(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3472)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3483)
21. Punishment for contravention of Section 3.
22. Punishment for contravention of Section 4.
23. Punishment for contravention of Section 5.
24. Punishment for repeat off enders.
25. Off ences by deposit takers other than individuals.
26. Punishment for contravention of Section 10.
27. Cognizance of off ences.
CHAPTER VII
I(cid:3478)(cid:3486)(cid:3469)(cid:3483)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3471)(cid:3465)(cid:3484)(cid:3473)(cid:3479)(cid:3478), S(cid:3469)(cid:3465)(cid:3467)(cid:3472) (cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3468) S(cid:3469)(cid:3473)(cid:3490)(cid:3485)(cid:3482)(cid:3469)
28. Off ences to be congnizable and non-bailable.
29. Competent Authority to be informed of off ences.
30. Investigation of off ences by Central Bureau of Investigation.
31. Power to enter, search nad seize without warrant.
32. Application of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to proceedings before Designated
Court.
CHAPTER VIII
M(cid:3473)(cid:3483)(cid:3467)(cid:3469)(cid:3476)(cid:3476)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3469)(cid:3479)(cid:3485)(cid:3483)
33. Publication of advertisement of Unregulated Deposit Scheme.
34. Act to have overriding eff ect.
35. Application of other laws not barred.
36. Protection of action taken in good faith.
37. Power to Central Government to make rules.
38. Power of State Government, etc., to make rules
39. Laying of rules.
40. Power to amend First Schedule.
41. Act not apply certain deposits.
42. Amendment to certain enactments.
43. Power to remove diffi culties.
44. Repeal and saving.
THE FIRST SCHEDULE.
THE SECOND SCHEDULE.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 345
New Delhi, the 31st July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
31st July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE BANNING OF UNREGULATED DEPOSIT SCHEMES ACT, 2019.
NO. 21 OF 2019
An Act to provide for a comprehensive mechanism to ban the unregulated deposit
schemes, other than deposits taken in the ordinary course of business, and to protect the
interest of depositors and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
CHAPTER I
PRELIMINARY
1. (1) This Act may be called the Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Short title,
extent and
Act, 2019.
commence-
(2) It extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir. ment.
(3) It shall be deemed to have come into force on the 21st day of February, 2019.
2. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires,— Defi nitions.
(1) “appropriate Government” means in respect of matters relating to,—
(i) the Union territory without legislature, the Central Government;
(ii) the Union territory of Puducherry, the Government of that Union territory;
(iii) the Union territory of Delhi, the Government of that Union territory; and
(iv) the State, the State Government;
18 of 2013. (2) “company” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (20) of
section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013;
(3) “Competent Authority” means an Authority appointed by the appropriate
Government under section 7;
(4) “deposit” means an amount of money received by way of an advance or loan
or in any other form, by any deposit taker with a promise to return whether after a specifi ed
period or otherwise, either in cash or in kind or in the form of a specifi ed service, with or
without any benefi t in the form of interest, bonus, profi t or in any other form, but does not
include—
(a) amounts received as loan from a scheduled bank or a co-operative bank
10 of 1949. or any other banking company as defi ned in section 5 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949;
(b) amounts received as loan or fi nancial assistance from the Public Financial
Institutions notifi ed by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India
or any non-banking fi nancial company as defi ned in clause (f) of section 45-I of the Reserve
2 of 1934. Bank of India Act, 1934 and is registered with the Reserve Bank of India or any Regional
Financial Institutions or insurance companies;
(c) amounts received from the appropriate Government, or any amount
received from any other source whose repayment is guaranteed by the appropriate
Government, or any amount received from a statutory authority constituted under an Act of
Parliament or a State Legislature;
(d) amounts received from foreign Governments, foreign or international
banks, multilateral fi nancial institutions, foreign Government owned development fi nancial
institutions, foreign export credit collaborators, foreign bodies corporate, foreign citizens,
foreign authorities or person resident outside India subject to the provisions of the Foreign
42 of 1999. Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the rules and regulations made thereunder;346 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(e) amounts received by way of contributions towards the capital by partners
of any partnership fi rm or a limited liability partnership;
(f) amounts received by an individual by way of loan from his relatives or
amounts received by any fi rm by way of loan from the relatives of any of its partners;
(g) amounts received as credit by a buyer from a seller on the sale of any
property (whether movable or immovable);
(h) amounts received by an asset re-construction company which is registered
with the Reserve Bank of India under section 3 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of
Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002; 54 of 2002.
(i) any deposit made under section 34 or an amount accepted by a political 43 of 1951.
party under section 29B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951;
(j) any periodic payment made by the members of the self-help groups
operating within such ceilings as may be prescribed by the State Government or Union
territory Government;
(k) any other amount collected for such purpose and within such ceilings as
may be prescribed by the State Government;
(l) an amount received in the course of, or for the purpose of, business and
bearing a genuine connection to such business including—
(i) payment, advance or part payment for the supply or hire of goods or
provision of services and is repayable in the event the goods or services are not in fact sold,
hired or otherwise provided;
(ii) advance received in connection with consideration of an immovable
property under an agreement or arrangement subject to the condition that such advance
is adjusted against such immovable property as specifi ed in terms of the agreement or
arrangement;
(iii) security or dealership deposited for the performance of the contract for
supply of goods or provision of services; or
(iv) an advance under the long-term projects for supply of capital goods
except those specifi ed in item (ii):
Provided that if the amounts received under items (i) to (iv) become refundable,
such amounts shall be deemed to be deposits on the expiry of fi fteen days from the date on
which they become due for refund:
Provided further that where the said amounts become refundable, due to the deposit
taker not obtaining necessary permission or approval under the law for the time being in force,
wherever required, to deal in the goods or properties or services for which money is taken,
such amounts shall be deemed to be deposits.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause,—
(i) in respect of a company, the expression “deposit” shall have the 18 of 2013.
same meaning as assigned to it under the Companies Act, 2013;
(ii) in respect of a non-banking fi nancial company registered under the 2 of 1934.
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the expression “deposit” shall have the same meaning as
assigned to it in clause (bb) of section 45-I of the said Act;
(iii) the expressions “partner” and “fi rm” shall have the meanings 9 of 1932.
respectively assigned to them under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932;
(iv) the expression “partner” in respect of a limited liability partnership 6 of 2009.
shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (q) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of
the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008;
(v) the expression “relative” shall have the same meaning as assigned 18 of 2013.
to it in the Companies Act, 2013;
(5) “depositor” means any person who makes a deposit under this Act;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 347
(6) “deposit taker” means—
(i) any individual or group of individuals;
(ii) a proprietorship concern;
(iii) a partnership fi rm (whether registered or not);
6 of 2009. (iv) a limited liability partnership registered under the Limited Liability
Partnership Act, 2008;
(v) a company;
(vi) an association of persons;
2 of 1882. (vii) a trust (being a private trust governed under the provisions of the Indian
Trusts Act, 1882 or a public trust, whether registered or not);
(viii) a co-operative society or a multi-State co-operative society; or
(ix) any other arrangement of whatsoever nature, receiving or soliciting
deposits, but does not include—
(i) a Corporation incorporated under an Act of Parliament or a State
Legislature;
(ii) a banking company, a corresponding new bank, the State Bank of India, a
subsidiary bank, a regional rural bank, a co-operative bank or a multi-State co-operative bank
10 of 1949.
as defi ned in the Banking Regulation Act,1949;
(7) “Designated Court” means a Designated Court constituted by the appropriate
Government under section 8;
(8) “insurer” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in clause (9) of section
4 of 1938. 2 of the Insurance Act, 1938;
(9) “notifi cation” means a notifi cation published in the Offi cial Gazette and the
expression “notify” shall be construed accordingly;
(10) “person” includes—
(i) an individual;
(ii) a Hindu Undivided Family;
(iii) a company;
(iv) a trust;
(v) a partnership fi rm;
(vi) a limited liability partnership;
(vii) an association of persons;
(viii) a co-operative society registered under any law for the time being in force
relating to co-operative societies; or
(ix) every artifi cial juridical person, not falling within any of the preceding
sub-clauses;
(11) “prescribed” means prescribed by the rules made by the Central Government
or, as the case may be, the State Government under this Act;
(12) “property” means any property or assets of every description, whether
corporeal or incorporeal, movable or immovable, tangible or intangible, and includes deeds
and instruments evidencing title to, or interest in, such property or assets, wherever located;
(13) “public fi nancial institution” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in
18 of 2013. clause (72) of section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013;
(14) “Regulated Deposit Scheme” means the Schemes specifi ed under column (3)
of the First Schedule;348 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(15) “Regulator” means the Regulator specifi ed in column (2) of the First Schedule;
(16) “Schedule” means the Schedule appended to this Act;
(17) “Unregulated Deposit Scheme” means a Scheme or an arrangement under
which deposits are accepted or solicited by any deposit taker by way of business and which is
not a Regulated Deposit Scheme, as specifi ed under column (3) of the First Schedule.
CHAPTER II
BANNING OF UNREGULATED DEPOSIT SCHEMES
Banning of 3. On and from the date of commencement of this Act,—
Unregulated
Deposit (a) the Unregulated Deposit Schemes shall be banned; and
Schemes.
(b) no deposit taker shall, directly or indirectly, promote, operate, issue any
advertisement soliciting participation or enrolment in or accept deposits in pursuance of an
Unregulated Deposit Scheme.
Fraudulent 4. No deposit taker, while accepting deposits pursuant to a Regulated Deposit
default in Scheme, shall commit any fraudulent default in the repayment or return of deposit on maturity
Regulated
or in rendering any specifi ed service promised against such deposit.
Deposit
Schemes.
Wrongful 5. No person by whatever name called shall knowingly make any statement, promise
inducement or forecast which is false, deceptive or misleading in material facts or deliberately conceal any
in relation to material facts, to induce another person to invest in, or become a member or participant of any
Unregulated
Unregulated Deposit Scheme.
Deposit
Schemes.
Certain scheme 6. A prize chit or a money circulation scheme banned under the provisions of the
to be Prize Chits and Money Circulation Scheme (Banning) Act, 1978 shall be deemed to be an 43 of 1978.
Unregulated Unregulated Deposit Scheme under this Act.
Deposit
Scheme.
CHAPTER III
Competent
Authority. AUTHORITIES
7. (1) The appropriate Government shall, by notifi cation, appoint one or more offi cers
not below the rank of Secretary to that Government, as the Competent Authority for the
purposes of this Act.
(2) The appropriate Government may, by notifi cation, appoint such other offi cer or
offi cers as it thinks fi t, to assist the Competent Authority in discharging its functions under this
Act.
(3) Where the Competent Authority or offi cers appointed under sub-section (2), for
the purposes of this section, has reason to believe (the reason for such belief to be recorded
in writing), on the basis of such information and particulars as may be prescribed, that any
deposit taker is soliciting deposits in contravention of section 3, he may, by an order in writing,
provisionally attach the deposits held by the deposit taker and the money or other property
acquired either in the name of the deposit taker or in the name of any other person on behalf
of the deposit taker from the date of the order, in such manner as may be prescribed.
(4) The Competent Authority shall, for the purposes of sub-section (3), have
the same powers as vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while 5 of 1908.
conducting investigation or inquiry in respect of the following matters, namely:—
(a) discovery and inspection;
(b) enforcing the attendance of any person, including any offi cer of a reporting
entity and examining him on oath;
(c) compelling the production of records;
(d) receiving evidence on affi davits;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 349
(e) issuing commissions for examination of witnesses and documents; and
(f) any other matter which may be prescribed.
(5) The Competent Authority shall have power to summon any person whose
attendance he considers necessary whether to give evidence or to produce any records
during the course of any investigation or proceeding under this section.
(6) All the persons so summoned shall be bound to attend in person or through
authorised agents, as such offi cer may direct, and shall be bound to state the truth upon
any subject respecting which they are examined or make statements, and produce such
documents as may be required.
45 of 1860. (7) Every proceeding under sub-sections (4) and (5) shall be deemed to be a
judicial proceeding within the meaning of section 193 and section 228 of the Indian Penal
Code.
(8) Subject to any rules made in this behalf by the Central Government, any offi cer
referred to in sub-section (2) may impound and retain in his custody for such period, as he
thinks fi t, any records produced before him in any proceedings under this Act:
Provided that the offi cer or offi cers referred to in sub-section (2) shall not—
(a) impound any records without recording his reasons for so doing; or
(b) retain in his custody any such records for a period exceeding three months,
without obtaining the previous approval of the Competent Authority.
8. (1) The appropriate Government shall, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice Designated
of the concerned High Court, by notifi cation, constitute one or more Courts known as the Court.
Designated Courts for such area or areas or such case or cases as may be specifi ed in such
notifi cation, which shall be presided over by a Judge not below the rank of a District and
Sessions Judge or Additional District and Sessions Judge.
(2) No Court other than the Designated Court shall have jurisdiction in respect of
any matter to which the provisions of this Act apply.
(3) When trying an off ence under this Act, the Designated Court may also try an
off ence, other than an off ence under this Act, with which the accused may, under the Code of
2 of 1974. Criminal Procedure, 1973, be charged at the same trial.
CHAPTER IV
INFORMATION ON DEPOSIT TAKERS
9. (1) The Central Government may designate an authority, whether existing or to be Central
constituted, which shall create, maintain and operate an online database for information on database.
deposit takers operating in India.
(2) The authority designated under sub-section (1) may require any Regulator or
the Competent Authority to share such information on deposit takers, as may be prescribed.
10. (1) Every deposit taker which commences or carries on its business as such on Information of
or after the commencement of this Act shall intimate the authority referred to in sub-section business
(1) of section 9 about its business in such form and manner and within such time, as may be by deposit
prescribed. taker.
(2) The Competent Authority may, if it has reason to believe that the deposits are
being solicited or accepted pursuant to an Unregulated Deposit Scheme, direct any deposit
taker to furnish such statements, information or particulars, as it considers necessary, relating
to or connected with the deposits received by such deposit taker.
Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarifi ed that—
(a) the requirement of intimation under sub-section (1) is applicable to deposit
takers accepting or soliciting deposits as defi ned in clause (4) of section 2; and
(b) the requirement of intimation under sub-section (1) applies to a company,
18 of 2013. if the company accepts the deposits under Chapter V of the Companies Act, 2013.350 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Information to 11. (1) The Competent Authority shall share all information received under section 29
be shared. with the Central Bureau of Investigation and with the authority which may be designated by
the Central Government under section 9.
(2) The appropriate Government, any Regulator, income-tax authorities or any
other investigation agency, having any information or documents in respect of the off ence
investigated under this Act by the police or the Central Bureau of Investigation, shall share all
such information or documents with the police or the Central Bureau of Investigation.
(3) Where the principal offi cer of any banking company, a corresponding new
bank, the State Bank of India, a subsidiary bank, a regional rural bank, a co-operative bank or
a multi-State co-operative bank has reason to believe that any client is a deposit taker and is
acting in contravention to the provisions of this Act, he shall forthwith inform the same to the
Competent Authority.
CHAPTER V
RESTITUTION TO DEPOSITORS
Priority of 12. Save as otherwise provided in the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial
depositors’
Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 or the Insolvency and Bankruptcy 54 of 2002.
claim.
Code, 2016, any amount due to depositors from a deposit taker shall be paid in priority over 31 of 2016.
all other debts and all revenues, taxes, cesses and other rates payable to the appropriate
Government or the local authority.
Precedence of 13. (1) Save as otherwise provided in the Securitisation and Reconstruction of
attachment. Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 or the Insolvency and 54 of 2002.
Bankruptcy Code, 2016, an order of provisional attachment passed by the Competent 31 of 2016.
Authority, shall have precedence and priority, to the extent of the claims of the depositors,
over any other attachment by any authority competent to attach property for repayment of any
debts, revenues, taxes, cesses and other rates payable to the appropriate Government or the
local authority.
(2) Where an order of provisional attachment has been passed by the Competent
Authority—
(a) such attachment shall continue until an order is passed under sub-section
(3) or sub-section (5) of section 15 by the Designated Court;
(b) all the attached money or property of the deposit taker and the persons
mentioned therein shall vest in the Competent Authority and shall remain so vested till further
order of the Designated Court.
(3) The Competent Authority shall open an account in a scheduled bank for
the purpose of crediting and dealing with the money realised under this Act, which shall not be
utilised except under the instructions of the Designated Court.
(4) The Competent Authority shall not dispose of or alienate the property
or money attached, except in accordance with the order of the Designated Court under
sub-section (3) or sub-section (5) of section 15.
(5) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (4), the Competent Authority
may, if it thinks it expedient, order the immediate sale of perishable items or assets, and the
proceeds of the sale shall be utilised in the same manner as provided for other property.
Application for 14. (1) The Competent Authority shall, within a period of thirty days, which may
confi rmation extend up to sixty days, for reasons to be recorded in writing, from the date of the order of
of attachment provisional attachment, fi le an application with such particulars as may be prescribed, before
and sale of the Designated Court for making the provisional attachment absolute, and for permission to
property. sell the property so attached by public auction or, if necessary, by private sale.
(2) In case where the money or property has been attached on the permission
granted by a Designated Court in another State or Union territory, the application for
confi rmation of such attachment shall be fi led in that Court.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 351
15. (I) Upon receipt of an application under section 14, the Designated Court shall Confi rmation of
issue notice to— attachment
by
(a) the deposit taker; and Designated
Court.
(b) any person whose property is attached under section 14,
to show cause, within a period of thirty days from the date of issue of notice, as to why
the order of attachment should not be made absolute and the properties so attached be sold.
(2) The Designated Court shall also issue notice to all other persons represented
to it as having or being likely to claim any interest or title in the property, to appear on the
same date as persons referred to in sub-section (1) to raise objections, if they so desire, to the
attachment of the property.
(3) The Designated Court shall, after adopting such procedure as may be
prescribed, pass an order—
(a) making the provisional order of attachment absolute; or
(b) varying it by releasing a portion of the property from attachment; or
(c) cancelling the provisional order of attachment,
and in case of an order under clause (a) or clause (b), direct the Competent Authority to
sell the property so attached by public auction or, if necessary, by private sale and realise the
sale proceeds.
(4) The Designated Court shall not, in varying or cancelling the provisional order
of attachment, release any property from attachment, unless it is satisfi ed that—
(a) the deposit taker or the person referred to in sub-section (1) has interest
in such property; and
(b) there shall remain an amount or property suffi cient for repayment to the
depositors of such deposit taker.
(5) The Designated Court shall pass such order or issue such direction as may
be necessary for the equitable distribution among the depositors of the money attached or
realised out of the sale.
(6) The Designated Court shall endeavour to complete the proceedings under
this section within a period of one hundred and eighty days from the date of receipt of the
application referred to in sub-section (1).
16. (1) Where the Designated Court is satisfi ed that there is a reasonable cause for Attachment of
believing that the deposit taker has transferred any property otherwise than in good faith and property of
not for commensurate consideration, it may, by notice, require any transferee of such property, mala fi de
whether or not he received the property directly from the said deposit taker, to appear on a transferees.
date to be specifi ed in the notice and show cause why so much of the transferee’s property as
is equivalent to the proper value of the property transferred should not be attached.
(2) Where the said transferee does not appear and show cause on the specifi ed
date or where the Designated Court is satisfi ed that the transfer of the property to the said
transferee was not a bona fi de transfer and not for commensurate consideration, it shall order
the attachment of so much of the said transferee’s property as in its opinion is equivalent to
the proper value of the property transferred.
17. (1) Any deposit taker or a person referred to in sub-section (1) of section 15, Payment
or transferee referred to in section 16 whose property is about to be attached or has been in lieu of
provisionally attached under this Act, may, at any time before the confi rmation of attachment, attachment.
apply to the Designated Court for permission to deposit the fair value of the property in lieu of
attachment.
(2) While allowing the deposit taker or person or transferee referred to in Powers of
sub-section (1) to make the deposit under sub-section (1), the Designated Court may order Designated
such deposit taker or person or transferee to pay any sum towards costs as may be applicable. Court
18. (1) The Designated Court shall exercise the following powers, namely:—
(a) power to approve the statement of dues of the deposit taker due from
various debtors;352 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(b) power to assess the value of the assets of the deposit taker and fi nalise the list
of the depositors and their respective dues;
(c) power to direct the Competent Authority to take possession of any assets
belonging to or in the control of the deposit taker and to sell, transfer or realise the attached
assets, either by public auction or by private sale as it deems fi t depending upon the nature of
assets and credit the sale proceeds thereof to its bank account;
(d) power to approve the necessary expenditure to be incurred by the Competent
Authority for taking possession and realisation of the assets of the deposit taker;
(e) power to pass an order for full payment to the depositors by the Competent
Authority or an order for proportionate payment to the depositors in the event, the money so
realised is not suffi cient to meet the entire deposit liability;
(f) power to direct any person, who has made profi t or averted loss by indulging in
any transaction or activity in contravention of the provisions of this Act, to disgorge an amount
equivalent to the wrongful gain made or loss averted by such contravention; and
(g) power to pass any other order which the Designated Court deems fi t for
realisation of assets of the deposit taker and for repayment of the same to the depositors of
such deposit taker or on any other matter or issue incidental thereto.
(2) On the application of any person interested in any property attached and vested in the
Competent Authority under this Act and after giving such Competent Authority an opportunity
of being heard, make such order as the Designated Court considers just and reasonable for—
(a) providing from such of the property attached and vested in the Competent
Authority as the applicant claims an interest in, such sums as may be reasonably necessary
for the maintenance of the applicant and of his family, and for expenses connected with the
defence of the applicant where criminal proceedings have been initiated against him in the
Designated Court under this Act; or
(b) safeguarding, so far as may be practicable, the interest of any business
aff ected by the attachment.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the expression “deposit taker” includes
the directors, promoters, managers or members of said establishment or any other person
whose property or assets have been attached under this Act.
Appeal to 19. Any person including the Competent Authority, if aggrieved by any fi nal order of the
High Court. Designated Court under this Chapter, may appeal to the High Court, within a period of sixty
days from the date of such order:
Provided that the High Court may entertain the appeal after the expiry of the said period of
sixty days, if it is satisfi ed that the appellant was prevented by suffi cient cause from preferring
the appeal in time.
Explanation.—The expression “High Court” means the High Court of a State or Union
territory where the Designated Court is situated.
Power of 20. (1) Whenever it is made to appear to the Supreme Court that there is a default in any
Supreme deposit scheme or deposit schemes of the nature referred to in section 30, the Supreme Court
Court may, by an order, direct that any particular case be transferred from one Designated Court to
to transfer another Designated Court.
cases.
(2) The Supreme Court may act under this section only on an application fi led by the
Competent Authority or any interested party, and every such application shall be supported by
an affi davit.
(3) Where an application for the exercise of the powers conferred by this section
is dismissed, the Supreme Court may, if it is of opinion that the application was frivolous or
vexatious, order the applicant to pay by way of compensation to any person who has opposed
the application such sum not exceeding fi fty thousand rupees as it may consider appropriate
in the circumstances of the case.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 353
CHAPTER VI
OFFENCES AND PUNISHMENTS
21. (1) Any deposit taker who solicits deposits in contravention of section 3 shall be Punishment
punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may for
extend to fi ve years and with fi ne which shall not be less than two lakh rupees but which may contravention
of section 3.
extend to ten lakh rupees.
(2) Any deposit taker who accepts deposits in contravention of section 3 shall be
punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than two years but which may
extend to seven years and with fi ne which shall not be less than three lakh rupees but which
may extend to ten lakh rupees.
(3) Any deposit taker who accepts deposits in contravention of section 3 and
fraudulently defaults in repayment of such deposits or in rendering any specifi ed service, shall
be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but which
may extend to ten years and with fi ne which shall not be less than fi ve lakh rupees but which
may extend to twice the amount of aggregate funds collected from the subscribers, members
or participants in the Unregulated Deposit Scheme.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this Act,—
(i) the expression “fraudulently” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in
section 25 of the Indian Penal Code;
(ii) where the terms of the Deposit Scheme are entirely impracticable or unviable,
45 of 1860.
the terms shall be relevant facts showing an intention to defraud.
22. Any deposit taker who contravenes the provisions of section 4 shall be punishable Pubnishment for
with imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years, or with fi ne which shall not constravention
be less than fi ve lakh rupees but which may extend to twenty-fi ve crore rupees or three times of section 4
the amount of profi ts made out of the fraudulent default referred to in said section, whichever
is higher, or with both.
23. Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 5 shall be punishable with Pubnishment for
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year but which may extend to fi ve constravention
years and with fi ne which may extend to ten lakh rupees. of section 5
24. Whoever having been previously convicted of an off ence punishable under this Pubnishment
Chapter, except the off ence under section 26, is subsequently convicted of an off ence shall for repeat
be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than fi ve years but which off enders
may extend to ten years and with fi ne which shall not be less than ten lakh rupees but which
may extend to fi fty crore rupees.
25. (1) Where an off ence under this Act has been committed by a deposit taker other Off ences by
than an individual, every person who, at the time the off ence was committed, was in charge of, deposit takers
and was responsible to, the deposit taker for the conduct of its business, as well as the deposit other than
individuals.
taker, shall be deemed to be guilty of the off ence and shall be liable to be proceeded against
and punished accordingly.
(2) Nothing contained in sub-section (1) shall render any such person liable to any
punishment provided in this Act, if he proves that the off ence was committed without his
knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such off ence.
(3) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where an off ence under
this Act has been committed by a deposit taker other than an individual, and it is proved that
the off ence—
(a) has been committed with the consent or connivance of; or
(b) is attributable to any neglect on the part of any director, manager, secretary,
promoter, partner, employee or other offi cer of the deposit taker,
such person shall also be deemed to be guilty of that off ence and shall be liable to be
proceeded against and punished accordingly.
26. Whoever fails to give the intimation required under sub-section (1) of section 10 or Pubnishment for
fails to furnish any such statements, information or particulars as required under sub-section constravention
(2) of that section, shall be punishable with fi ne which may extend to fi ve lakh rupees. of section 10354 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
27. Notwithstanding anything contained in section 4, no Designated Court shall take
cognizance of an off ence punishable under that section except upon a complaint made by the
Regulator: Provided that the provisions of section 4 and this section shall not apply in relation
Cognizence of to a deposit taker which is a company.
Offi cers
CHAPTER VII
INVESTIGATION, SEARCH AND SEIZURE
Off ences to be 28. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 every
Cognizable off ence punishable under this Act, except the off ence under section 22 and section 26, shall
and non- be cognizable and non-bailable.
bailable 2 of 1974.
29. The police offi cer shall, on recording information about the commission of an off ence
Competent
Authority to under this Act, inform the same to the Competent Authority.
be informed
30. (1) On receipt of information under section 29 or otherwise, if the Competent Authority
of off ences.
has reason to believe that the off ence relates to a deposit scheme or deposit schemes in
which—
Investigation
of off ences (a) the depositors, deposit takers or properties involved are located in more than
by Central one State or Union territory in India or outside India; and
Bureau of
Investigation. (b) the total value of the amount involved is of such magnitude as to signifi cantly
aff ect the public interest,
the Competent Authority shall refer the matter to the Central Government for
investigation by the Central Bureau of Investigation.
(2) The reference made by the Competent Authority under sub-section (1) shall be
deemed to be with the consent of the State Government under section 6 of the Delhi Special
25 of 1946.
Police Establishment Act, 1946.
(3) On the receipt of the reference under sub-section (1), the Central Government
may transfer the investigation of the off ence to the Central Bureau of Investigation under
section 5 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. 25 of 1946.
Power to enter, 31. (1) Whenever any police offi cer, not below the rank of an offi cer in-charge of a police
search station, has reason to believe that anything necessary for the purpose of an investigation into
and seize any off ence under this Act may be found in any place within the limits ofthe police station of
without which he is in-charge, or to which he is attached, such offi cer may, with the written authorisation
warrant.
of an offi cer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police, and after recording in writing so
far as possible, the thing for which the search is to be made and subject to the rules made in
this behalf, authorise any offi cer subordinate to him,—
(a) to enter and search any building, conveyance or place, between sunrise and
sunset, which he has reason to suspect is being used for purposes connected with the
promotion or conduct of any deposit taking scheme or arrangement in contravention of the
provisions of this Act;
(b) in case of resistance, to break open any door and remove any obstacle tosuch
entry, if necessary by force, with such assistance as he considers necessary, for exercising
the powers conferred by clause (a);
(c) to seize any record or property found as a result of the search in the said building,
conveyance or place, which are intended to be used, or reasonably suspected to have been
used, in connection with any such deposit taking scheme or arrangement in contravention of
the provisions of this Act; and
(d) to detain and search, and if he thinks proper, take into custody and produce
before any Designated Court any such person whom he has reason to believe to have
committed any off ence punishable under this Act:
Provided that if such offi cer has reason to believe that the said written authorisation
cannot be obtained without aff ording opportunity for the concealment of evidence or facility
for the escape of an off ender, he may, without the said written authorisation, enter and search
such building, conveyance or place, at any time between sunset and sunrise after recording
the grounds in writing.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 355
(2) Where it is not practicable to seize the record or property, the offi cer authorised
under sub-section (1), may make an order in writing to freeze such property, account, deposits
or valuable securities maintained by any deposit taker about which a complaint has been made
or credible information has been received or a reasonable suspicion exists of their having
been connected with the promotion or conduct of any deposit taking scheme or arrangement
in contravention of the provisions of this Act and it shall be binding on the concerned bank or
fi nancial or market establishment to comply with the said order:
Provided that no bank or fi nancial or market establishment shall freeze such account,
deposit or valuable securities, for a period beyond thirty days unless the same is authorised
by the order of the Designated Court:
Provided further that, if at any time, it becomes practicable to seize the frozen property,
the offi cer authorised under sub-section (1) may seize such property.
Explanation.—For the purposes of this section, the expressions,—
(i) “freezing of account” shall mean that no transaction, whether deposit or
withdrawal shall be allowed in the said account; and
(ii) “freezing of property” shall mean that no transfer, conversion, disposition or
movement of property shall be allowed.
(3) Where an offi cer takes down any information in writing or records grounds for his
belief or makes an order in writing under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2), he shall, within a
time of seventy-two hours send a copy thereof to the Designated Court in a sealed envelope
and the owner or occupier of the building, conveyance or place shall, on application, be
furnished, free of cost, with a copy of the same by the Designated Court.
(4) All searches, seizures and arrests under this section shall be made in accordance
2 of 1974.
with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
32. (1) The Designated Court may take cognizance of off ences under this Act without the Application of
accused being committed to it for trial. Code of
Criminal
2 of 1974. (2) Save as otherwise provided in section 31, the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
Procedure, 1973 shall apply— 1973 to
proceedings
(a) to all arrests, searches and seizures made under this Act; before
Designated
(b) to the proceedings under this Act and for the purposes of the said provisions, the
Court.
Designated Court shall be deemed to be a Court of Session and the persons conducting the
prosecution before the Designated Court, shall be deemed to be Public Prosecutors.
CHAPTER VIII
MISCELLANEOUS
33. Where any newspaper or other publication of any nature, contains any statement, Publication of
information or advertisement promoting, soliciting deposits for, or inducing any person to advertisement
become a member of any Unregulated Deposit Scheme, the appropriate Government may of Unregulated
direct such newspaper or publication to publish a full and fair retraction, free of cost, in the Deposit
Scheme.
same manner and in the same position in such newspaper or publication as may be prescribed.
34. Save as otherwise expressly provided in this Act, the provisions of this Act shall have Act to have
eff ect notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force, including overriding
any law made by any State or Union territory. eff ect.
35. The provisions of this Act shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the Application of
provisions of any other law for the time being in force. other laws not
barred.
36. No suit, prosecution or other legal proceedings shall lie against the appropriate Protection of
Government or the Competent Authority or any offi cer of the appropriate Government for action taken
anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act or the rules made in good faith
thereunder.
37. (1) The Central Government may, by notifi cation, make rules for carrying out the Power of
provisions of this Act. Central
Government
to make rules.356 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules
may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—
(a) the information and other particulars to be taken into consideration before issuing
an order, and the manner of attachment, under sub-section (3) of section 7;
(b) the information to be shared under sub-section (2) of section 9;
(c) the form and manner in which and the time within which the intimation shall be
given under sub-section (1) of section 10;
(d) the particulars contained in the application to be fi led by the Competent Authority
before the Designated Court under sub-section (1) of section 14;
(e) the procedure to be adopted by the Designated Court before issuing an order
under sub-section (3) of section 15;
(f) rules under sub-section (1) of section 31;
(g) the manner of publication of advertisement under section 33; and
(h) any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed.
Power of State 38. (1) The State Government or Union territory Government, as the case may be,
Government, inconsultation with the Central Government, by notifi cation, make rules for carrying out the
etc., to make provisions of this Act.
rules.
(2) In particular and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules
may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:—
(a) ceiling for self-help groups under clause (j) of sub-section (4) of section 2;
(b) purpose and ceiling under clause (k) of sub-section (4) of section 2;
(c) the manner of provisional attachment of property by the Competent Authority
under sub-section (3) of section 7;
(d) other matters under clause (f) of sub-section (4) of section 7;
(e) the rules relating to impounding and custody of records under sub-section (8) of
section 7; and
(f) any other matter which is required to be, or may be, prescribed.
Laying of rules. 39. (1) Every rule made by the Central Government under this Act shall be laid, as soon
as may be after it is made, before each House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total
period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session, or in two or more successive
sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the session or the
successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modifi cation in the rule,
or both Houses agree that the rule should not be made, the rule shall thereafter have eff ect
only in such modifi ed form or be of no eff ect, as the case may be; so, however, that any such
modifi cation or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done
under that rule.
(2) Every rule made by a State Government or the Union territory Government, as
the case may be, shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each House of the
State Legislature or the Union territory Legislature, as the case may be, where it consists of
two Houses, or where such Legislature consists of one House, before that House.
Power to 40. (1) The Central Government may, having regard to the objects of this Act, and if it
amend First considers necessary or expedient so to do, by notifi cation, add to, or as the case may be, omit
Schedule. from the First Schedule, any scheme or arrangement, and on such addition, or omission, such
scheme or arrangement shall become, or cease to be, a Regulated Deposit Scheme, as the
case may be.
(2) A copy of every notifi cation issued under this section shall, as soon as may be after it
has been issued, be laid before each House of Parliament.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 357
41. The provisions of this Act shall not apply to deposits taken in the ordinary course of Act not to apply
business. certain
deposits.
42. The enactments specifi ed in the Second Schedule shall be amended in the manner
specifi ed therein.
Amendment
to Certrain
43. (1) If any diffi culty arises in giving eff ect to the provisions of this Act, the Central
enactments
Government may, by order published in the Offi cial Gazette, make such provisions, not
inconsistent with the provisions of this Act, as may appear to it to be necessary for removing Power to
the diffi culty: remove
diffi culties
Provided that no such order shall be made under this section after the expiry of three
years from the commencement of this Act.
(2) Every order made under this section shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made,
before each House of Parliament.
Ord. 7 of 2019 44. (1) The Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Ordinance, 2019, is hereby repealed. Repeal and
Saving.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken under the said
Ordinance, shall be deemed to have been done or taken under this Act.
THE FIRST SCHEDULE
[See Section 2 (15)]
REGULATED DEPOSIT SCHEMES
(1) The Regulator and Regulated Deposit Scheme refers to the regulators and schemes
and arrangements listed in the following Table, namely:—
T(cid:3465)(cid:3466)(cid:3476)(cid:3469)
Sl. No. Regulator Regulated Deposit Scheme
(1) (2) (3)
1. The Securities and (i) Any scheme or an arrangement [as defi ned under
Exchange Board of India Exchange Board section 11AA of the Securities
and Exchange Board ofof India India Act, 1992 (15
of 1992)] launched, sponsored or carried out by
a Collective Investment Management Company
registered with the Securities and Exchange
Board of India under the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (Collective Investment Scheme)
Regulations, 1999.
(ii) Any scheme or an arrangement registered with
the Securities and Exchange Board of India
under the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.
(iii) Any scheme or an arrangement, pursuant to
which funds are managed by a portfolio manager,
registered under the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (Portfolio Managers) Regulations,
1993.
(iv) Any scheme or an arrangement regulated under
the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Share
Based Employee Benefi ts) Regulations, 2014
or providing for employee benefi ts as permitted
under the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013).
(v) Any other scheme or an arrangement registered
under the Securities and Exchange Board of India
Act, 1992 (15 of 1992), or the regulations made
thereunder.358 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
(vi) Any amount received as contributions in the nature
of subscriptions to a mutual fund registered with
Securities and Exchange Board of India under the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (Mutual
Funds) Regulations, 1996.
2. The Reserve Bank of (i) Any scheme under which deposits are accepted by
India Non-Banking Financial Companies as defi ned in
clause (f) of section 45-I of the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934 (2 of 1934) and registered with the
Reserve Bank of India; or any other scheme or an
arrangement registered under the Reserve Bank
of India Act, 1934.
(ii) Any scheme or an arrangement under which funds
are accepted by individuals or entities engaged
as Business Correspondents and Facilitators
by banks subject to the guidelines and circulars
issued by the Reserve Bank of India from time to
time.
(iii) Any scheme or an arrangement under which
fund sare received by a system provider operating
as an authorised payment system under the
Payment andSettlement Systems Act, 2007 (51 of
2007).
(iv) Any other scheme or an arrangement regulated
under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (2 of
1934),or the guidelines or circulars of the Reserve
Bank of India.
3. The Insurance Regulatory and A contract of insurance pursuant to a certifi cate
Development Authority of India registration of obtained in accordance with the
Insurance Development Act, 1938 (4 of 1938),
Authority of India
4. The State Government (i) Any scheme or an arrangement made or off ered by
or Union territory co-operative society registered under the Coopera-
Government tive Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912) or a society
being a society registered or deemed to be
registered under any law relating to co-operative
societies for the time being in force in any State or
Union territory.
(ii) Any scheme or an arrangement commenced or
conducted as a chit business with the previous
sanction of the State Government in accordance
with the provisions of the Chit Funds Act, 1982 (40
of 1982).
(iii) Any scheme or an arrangement regulated by
any enactment relating to money lending which is
for the time being in force in any State or Union
territory.
(iv) Any scheme or an arrangement by a prize chit
or money circulation scheme under section 11 of
the Prize Chits and Money Circulation Schemes
(Banning) Act, 1978 (43 of 1978).
5. The National Housing Bank Any scheme or an arrangement for acceptance of
deposits registered under the National Housing
Bank Act, 1987 (53 of 1987).Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 359
6. The Pension Fund Regulatory Any scheme or an arrangement under the Pension
Development Authority and Regulatory and Act, 2013 Development
(23 of 2013).
7. The Employees’ Provident Any scheme, Pension Scheme or Insurance
Organisation Scheme framed under the Employees’ Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
(19 of 1952).
8. The Central Registrar, Any scheme or an arrangement for acceptance of
Multi-State Co-operative from voting members by a Multi-State operative
Societies Co-operative Society registered under the Multi-
State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 (39 of
2002).
9. The Ministry of (i) Deposits accepted or permitted under the provisions
Corporate Aff airs, of Chapter V of the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013).
Government of India
(ii) Any scheme or an arrangement under which
deposits are accepted by a company declared as
a Nidhi or a Mutual Benefi t Society under section
406 of the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013).
(2) The following shall also be treated as Regulated Deposit Schemes under this Act,
namely:—
(a) deposits accepted under any scheme or an arrangement registered with any
regulatory body in India constituted or established under a statute; and
(b) any other scheme as may be notifi ed by the Central Government under this Act.360 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
THE SECOND SCHEDULE
(See Section 42)
A(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484) (cid:3484)(cid:3479) C(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3484)(cid:3465)(cid:3473)(cid:3478) E(cid:3478)(cid:3465)(cid:3467)(cid:3484)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484)(cid:3483)
PART I
A(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3477)(cid:3469)(cid:3478)(cid:3484) (cid:3484)(cid:3479) (cid:3484)(cid:3472)(cid:3469) (cid:3482)(cid:3469)(cid:3483)(cid:3469)(cid:3482)(cid:3486)(cid:3469) (cid:3466)(cid:3465)(cid:3478)(cid:3475) (cid:3479)(cid:3470) I(cid:3478)(cid:3468)(cid:3473)(cid:3465)
Act, 1934
In the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, in Section 45-I, in clause (bb), after Explanation Amendment of
II, the following Explanation shall be inserted, namely:— section 45-I
of Act 2 of
“Explanation III.—The amounts accepted by a co-operative society from the members 1934.
or shareholders, by whatever name called, but excluding the amounts received as share
capital, shall be deemed to be deposits for the purposes of this clause, if such members or
shareholders are nominal or associate members, by whatever name called, who do not have
full voting rights in the meetings of such co-operative society.”.
PART II
AMENDMENTS TO THE SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF INDIA ACT,
1992
In the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992,—
(i) in section 11, in sub-section (4), for clause (e), the following clause shall besubstituted, Amendment
namely:— of section
11 of Act 15
“(e) attach, for a period not exceeding ninety days, bank accounts orother property of of1992.
any intermediary or any person associated with the securitiesmarket in any manner involved
in violation of any of the provisions of this Act,or the rules or the regulations made thereunder:
Provided that the Board shall, within ninety days of the said attachment,obtain confi rmation
of the said attachment from the Special Court, establishedunder section 26A, having
jurisdiction and on such confi rmation, such attachmentshall continue during the pendency of
the aforesaid proceedings and onconclusion of the said proceedings, the provisions of section
28A shall apply:
Provided further that only property, bank account or accounts or anytransaction entered
therein, so far as it relates to the proceeds actually involvedin violation of any of the provisions
of this Act, or the rules or the regulations made thereunder shall be allowed to be attached.”;
(ii) in section 28A, after Explanation 3, the following Explanation shall beinserted,
namely:—
43 of 1961. “Explanation 4.—The interest referred to in section 220 of the Income-tax Act, 1961
shall commence from the date the amount became payable by the person.”.
PART III
AMENDMENT TO THE MULTI-STATE CO-OPERATIVE SOCIETIES ACT, 2002
In the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002, in section 67, in sub-section (1),—
(a) after the words “receive deposits”, the words “from its voting members”shall be
inserted;
(b) the following Explanation shall be inserted, namely:— 43 of 1961.
Amendment
“Explanation.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarifi ed that a multi-State co-
of section 67
operative society shall not be entitled to receive deposits from persons other than voting of Act 39 of
members.”. 2002.
D(cid:3482). G. NARAYANA RAJU,
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 361
New Delhi, the 31st July, 2019.
The following Act of Parliament received the assent of the President on the
31st July, 2019 and is hereby re-published for general information:—
THE COMPANIES (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2019.
No. 22 OF 2019
An Act further to amend the Companies Act, 2013.
B(cid:3469) it enacted by Parliament in the Seventieth Year of the Republic of India as follows:—
(1) This Act may be called the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019.
Short title and
(2) The provisions of this Act, except sections 6, 7 and 8, clauses (i), (iii) and clause
commencement.
(iv) of section 14, sections 20 and 21, section 31, sections 33, 34 and 35, sections 37 and 38
shall be deemed to have come into force on the 2nd day of November, 2018.
(3) The provisions of sections 6, 7 and 8, clauses (i), (iii) and clause (iv) of section 14,
sections 20 and 21, section 31, sections 33, 34 and 35, sections 37 and 38 shall come into
force on such date as the Central Government may, by notifi cation in the Offi cial Gazette,
appoint and diff erent dates may be appointed for these provisions and any reference in any
such provision to the commencement of this Act shall be construed as a reference to the
coming into force of that provision.
Amendment of 2. In section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013 (hereinafter referred to as the principal Act), 18 of 2013.
section 2. in clause (41),––
(a) for the fi rst proviso, the following provisos shall be substituted, namely:—
“Provided that where a company or body corporate, which is a holding company or a
subsidiary or associate company of a company incorporated outside India and is required
to follow a diff erent fi nancial year for consolidation of its accounts outside India, the Central
Government may, on an application made by that company or body corporate in such form
and manner as may be prescribed, allow any period as its fi nancial year, whether or not that
period is a year:
Provided further that any application pending before the Tribunal as on the date of
commencement of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, shall be disposed of by the
Tribunal in accordance with the provisions applicable to it before such commencement.”;
(b) in the second proviso, for the words “Provided further that”, the words “Provided
also that” shall be substituted.
Insertion (3) After section 10 of2 the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:—
of new
section 10A. “10A. (1) A company incorporated after the commencement of the Companies
Commence- (Amendment) Act, 2019 and having a share capital shall not commence any business or
ment of exercise any borrowing powers unless—
business,
etc. (a) a declaration is fi led by a director within a period of one hundred and eighty days
of the date of incorporation of the company in such form and verifi ed in such manner as may
be prescribed, with the Registrar that every subscriber to the memorandum has paid the value
of the shares agreed to be taken by him on the date of making of such declaration; and
(b) the company has fi led with the Registrar a verifi cation of its registered offi ce as
provided in sub-section (2) of section 12.
(2) If any default is made in complying with the requirements of this section, the
company shall be liable to a penalty of fi fty thousand rupees and every offi cer who is in default
shall be liable to a penalty of one thousand rupees for each day during which such default
continues but not exceeding an amount of one lakh rupees.
(3) Where no declaration has been fi led with the Registrar under clause (a) of sub-
section (1) within a period of one hundred and eighty days of the date of incorporation of the
company and the Registrar has reasonable cause to believe that the company is not carrying
on any business or operations, he may, without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (2),
initiate action for the removal of the name of the company from the register of companies
under Chapter XVIII.”.362 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Amendment of 4. In section 12 of the principal Act, after sub-section (8), the following sub-section shall
section 12. be inserted, namely:—
“(9) If the Registrar has reasonable cause to believe that the company is not carrying on
any business or operations, he may cause a physical verifi cation of the registered offi ce of
the company in such manner as may be prescribed and if any default is found to be made in
complying with the requirements of sub-section (1), he may without prejudice to the provisions
of sub-section (8), initiate action for the removal of the name of the company from the register
of companies under Chapter XVIII.”.
5. In section 14 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
section 14.
(i) in sub-section (1), for the second proviso, the following provisos shall be
substituted, namely:—
“Provided further that any alteration having the eff ect of conversion of a public company
into a private company shall not be valid unless it is approved by an order of the Central
Government on an application made in such form and manner as may be prescribed:
Provided also that any application pending before the Tribunal, as on the date of
commencement of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, shall be disposed of by the
Tribunal in accordance with the provisions applicable to it before such commencement.”;
(ii) in sub-section (2), for the word “Tribunal”, the words “Central Government” shall
be substituted.
6. In section 26 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
section 26.
(i) in sub-sections (4), (5) and (6), for the word “registration”, the word “fi ling” shall
be substituted;
(ii) sub-section (7) shall be omitted.
7. In section 29 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
section 29.
(i) in sub-section (1), in clause (b), the word “public” shall be omitted;
(ii) after sub-section (1), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—
22 of 1996.
“(1A) In case of such class or classes of unlisted companies as may
beprescribed, the securities shall be held or transferred only in dematerialised form in the
manner laid down in the Depositories Act, 1996 and the regulations made thereunder.”.
8. In section 35 of the principal Act, in sub-section (2), in clause (c), for the words “delivery Amendment of
of a copy of the prospectus for registration”, the words “fi ling of a copy of the prospectus with section 35.
the Registrar” shall be substituted.
9. In section 53 of the principal Act, for sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall be Amendment of
substituted, namely:— section 53.
“(3) Where any company fails to comply with the provisions of this section, such
company and every offi cer who is in default shall be liable to a penalty which may extend to
an amount equal to the amount raised through the issue of shares at a discount or fi ve lakh
rupees, whichever is less, and the company shall also be liable to refund all monies received
with interest at the rate of twelve per cent. per annum from the date of issue of such shares to
the persons to whom such shares have been issued.”.
10. In section 64 of the principal Act, for sub-section (2), the following sub-section Amendment of
shall be substituted, namely:— section 64.
“(2) Where any company fails to comply with the provisions of sub-section (1),
such company and every offi cer who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of one thousand
rupees for each day during which such default continues, or fi ve lakh rupees whichever is
less.”.
11. In se ction 77 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), for the fi rst and second provisos, Amendment of
the following provisos shall be substituted, namely:— section 77.
“Provided that the Registrar may, on an application by the company, allow such
registration to be made––Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 363
(a) in case of charges created before the commencement of the Companies
(Amendment) Act, 2019, within a period of three hundred days of such creation; or
(b) in case of charges created on or after the commencement of the Companies
(Amendment) Act, 2019, within a period of sixty days of such creation,
on payment of such additional fees as may be prescribed:
Provided further that if the registration is not made within the period specifi ed—
(a) in clause (a) to the fi rst proviso, the registration of the charge shall be
made within six months from the date of commencement of the Companies (Amendment) Act,
2019, on payment of such additional fees as may be prescribed and diff erent fees may be
prescribed for diff erent classes of companies;
(b) in clause (b) to the fi rst proviso, the Registrar may, on an application, allow
such registration to be made within a further period of sixty days after payment of such ad
valorem fees as may be prescribed.”.
12. Section 86 of the principal Act shall be numbered as sub-section (1) thereof and after
Amendment of
sub-section (1) as so numbered, the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:— section 86.
“(2) If any person wilfully furnishes any false or incorrect information or knowingly
suppresses any material information, required to be registered in accordance with the
provisions of section 77, he shall be liable for action under section 447.”.
13. For section 87 of the principal Act, the following section shall be substituted, namely:— Substitution of
new section
for section
87.
“87. The Central Government on being satisfi ed that— Rectifi cation by
Central
(a) the omission to give intimation to the Registrar of the payment or satisfaction Government
of a charge, within the time required under this Chapter; or in Register of
charges.
(b) the omission or misstatement of any particulars, in any fi ling previously
made to the Registrar with respect to any charge or modifi cation thereof or with respect to any
memorandum of satisfaction or other entry made in pursuance of section 82 or section 83,
was accidental or due to inadvertence or some other suffi cient cause or it is not of a
nature to prejudice the position of creditors or shareholders of the company, it may, on the
application of the company or any person interested and on such terms and conditions as
it deems just and expedient, direct that the time for the giving of intimation of payment or
satisfaction shall be extended or, as the case may require, that the omission or misstatement
shall be rectifi ed.”.
14. In section 90 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
section 90.
(i) after sub-section (4), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—
“(4A) Every company shall take necessary steps to identify an individual
who is a signifi cant benefi cial owner in relation to the company and require him to comply with
the provisions of this section.”;
(ii) for sub-section (9), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:—
“(9) The company or the person aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal may
make an application to the Tribunal for relaxation or lifting of the restrictions placed under sub-
section (8), within a period of one year from the date of such order:
Provided that if no such application has been fi led within a period of one year from
the date of the order under sub-section (8), such shares shall be transferred, without any
restrictions, to the authority constituted under sub-section (5) of section 125, in such manner
as may be prescribed.”;
(iii) after sub-section (9), as so substituted, the following sub-section shall be
inserted, namely:—364 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
“(9A) The Central Government may make rules for the purposes of this
section.”;
(iv) in sub-section (11), after the word, brackets and fi gure “sub-section (4)”, the
words, brackets, fi gure and letter “or required to take necessary steps under sub-section (4A)”
shall be inserted.
Amendment of 15. In section 92 of the principal Act, for sub-section (5), the following sub-section shall
section 92.
be substituted, namely:—
“(5) If any company fails to fi le its annual return under sub-section (4), before the
expiry of the period specifi ed therein, such company and its every offi cer who is in default shall
be liable to a penalty of fi fty thousand rupees and in case of continuing failure, with a further
penalty of one hundred rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such failure continues,
subject to a maximum of fi ve lakh rupees.”.
Amendment of 16. In section 102 of the principal Act, for sub-section (5), the following sub-section
section 102. shall be substituted, namely:—
“(5) Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-section (4), if any default is made
in complying with the provisions of this section, every promoter, director, manager or other
key managerial personnel of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of
fi fty thousand rupees or fi ve times the amount of benefi t accruing to the promoter, director,
manager or other key managerial personnel or any of his relatives, whichever is higher.”.
Amendment of 17. In section 105 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), for the words “punishable with
section 105. fi ne which may extend to fi ve thousand rupees”, the words “liable to a penalty of fi ve thousand
rupees” shall be substituted.
Amendment of 18. In section 117 of the principal Act, for sub-section (2), the following sub-section
section 117. shall be substituted, namely:—
“(2) If any company fails to fi le the resolution or the agreement under sub-section (1)
before the expiry of the period specifi ed therein, such company shall be liable to a penalty of
one lakh rupees and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of fi ve hundred rupees
for each day after the fi rst during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of
twenty-fi ve lakh rupees and every offi cer of the company who is in default including liquidator
of the company, if any, shall be liable to a penalty of fi fty thousand rupees and in case of
continuing failure, with a further penalty of fi ve hundred rupees for each day after the fi rst
during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of fi ve lakh rupees.”.
Amendment of 19. In section 121 of the principal Act, for sub-section (3), the following sub-section
section 121. shall be substituted, namely:—
“(3) If the company fails to fi le the report under sub-section (2) before the expiry of
the period specifi ed therein, such company shall be liable to a penalty of one lakh rupees and
in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of fi ve hundred rupees for each day after
the fi rst during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of fi ve lakh rupees and
every offi cer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty which shall not be
less than twenty-fi ve thousand rupees and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty
of fi ve hundred rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such failure continues, subject
to a maximum of one lakh rupees.”.
Amendment of 20. In section 132 of the principal Act,—
section 132.
(a) after sub-section (1), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—
“(1A) The National Financial Reporting Authority shall perform its functionsthrough
such divisions as may be prescribed.”;
(b) after sub-section (3), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—
“(3A) Each division of the National Financial Reporting Authority shall be presided
over by the Chairperson or a full-time Member authorised by the Chairperson.
(3B) There shall be an executive body of the National Financial Reporting Authority
consisting of the Chairperson and full-time Members of such Authority for effi cient discharge
of its functions under sub-section (2) [other than clause (a)] and sub-section (4).”;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 365
(c) in sub-section (4), in clause (c), for sub-clause (B), the following sub-clause shall be
substituted, namely:—
“(B) debarring the member or the fi rm from—
I, being appointed as an auditor or internal auditor or undertaking any audit in
respect of fi nancial statements or internal audit of the functions and activities of any company
or body corporate; or
II. performing any valuation as provided under section 247,
for a minimum period of six months or such higher period not exceeding ten years as
may be determined by the National Financial Reporting Authority.”.
21. In section 135 of the principal Act,—
Amendment of
(a) in sub-section (5), — section 135.
(i) after the words “three immediately preceding fi nancial years,”, the words
“or where the company has not completed the period of three fi nancial years since its
incorporation, during such immediately preceding fi nancial years,” shall be inserted;
(ii) in the second proviso, after the words “reasons for not spending the amount”
occurring at the end, the words, brackets, fi gure and letters “and, unless the unspent amount
relates to any ongoing project referred to in sub-section (6), transfer such unspent amount to
a Fund specifi ed in Schedule VII, within a period of six months of the expiry of the fi nancial
year” shall be inserted;
(b) after sub-section (5), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—
“(6) Any amount remaining unspent under sub-section (5), pursuant toany
ongoing project, fulfi lling such conditions as may be prescribed, undertaken by a company in
persuance of its Corporate Social Responsibility Policy, shall be transferred by the company
within a period of thirty days from the end of the fi nancial year to a special account to be
opened by the company in that behalf for that fi nancial year in any scheduled bank to be
called the Unspent Corporate Social Responsibility Account, and such amount shall be spent
by the company in pursuance of its obligation towards the Corporate Social Responsibility
Policy within a period of three fi nancial years from the date of such transfer, failing which, the
company shall transfer the same to a Fund specifi ed in Schedule VII, within a period of thirty
days from the date of completion of the third fi nancial year.
(7) If a company contravenes the provisions of sub-section (5) or sub-section (6), the
company shall be punishable with fi ne which shall not be less than fi fty thousand rupees but
which may extend to twenty-fi ve lakh rupees and every offi cer of such company who is in
default shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or
with fi ne which shall not be less than fi fty thousand rupees but which may extend to fi ve lakh
rupees, or with both.
(8) The Central Government may give such general or special directions to a company
or class of companies as it considers necessary to ensure compliance of provisions of this
section and such company or class of companies shall comply with such directions.”. Amendment of
section137.
22. In section 137 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3),—
(a) for the words “punishable with fi ne”, the words “liable to a penalty” shall be
substituted;
(b) for the portion beginning with the words “punishable with imprisonment”, and
ending with the words “fi ve lakh rupees or with both”, the words “shall be liable to a penalty of
one lakh rupees and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of one hundred rupees
for each day after the fi rst during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of fi ve
lakh rupees” shall be substituted.
23. In section 140 of the principal Act, for sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall Amendment of
be substituted, namely:— section 140.
“(3) If the auditor does not comply with the provisions of sub-section (2), he or it
shall be liable to a penalty of fi fty thousand rupees or an amount equal to the remuneration of
the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of fi ve
hundred rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such failure continues, subject to a
maximum of fi ve lakh rupees.”.366 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Amendment of 24. In section 157 of the principal Act, for sub-section (2), the following sub-section
section 157. shall be substituted, namely:—
“(2) If any company fails to furnish the Director Identifi cation Number under sub-
section (1), such company shall be liable to a penalty of twenty-fi ve thousand rupees and in
case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of one hundred rupees for each day after the
fi rst during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of one lakh rupees, and every
offi cer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of not less than twenty-
fi ve thousand rupees and in case of continuing failure, with a further penalty of one hundred
rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum
of one lakh rupees.”.
Substitution of 25. For section 159 of the principal Act, the following section shall be substituted,
new section
namely:—
for section
159.
Penalty for “159. If any individual or director of a company makes any default in complying
default with any of the provisions of section 152, section 155 and section 156, such individual or
of certain director of the company shall be liable to a penalty which may extend to fi fty thousand rupees
provisions. and where the default is a continuing one, with a further penalty which may extend to fi ve
hundred rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such default continues.”.
Amendment of 26. In section 164 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), after clause (h), the following
section 164. clause shall be inserted, namely:—
“(i) he has not complied with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 165.”.
Amendment of 27. In section 165 of the principal Act, in sub-section (6), for the portion beginning with
section 165. the words “punishable with fi ne” and ending with the words “contravention continues”, the
words “liable to a penalty of fi ve thousand rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such
contravention continues” shall be substituted.
28. In section 191 of the principal Act, for sub-section (5), the following sub-section shall
Amendment of
section 191. be substituted, namely:—
“(5) If a director of the company makes any default in complying with the
provisions of this section, such director shall be liable to a penalty of one lakh rupees.”.
Amendment of 29. In section 197 of the principal Act,—
section 197.
(a) sub-section (7) shall be omitted;
(b) for sub-section (15), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:—
“(15) If any person makes any default in complying with the provisions ofthis
section, he shall be liable to a penalty of one lakh rupees and where any default has been
made by a company, the company shall be liable to a penalty of fi ve lakh rupees.”.
Amendment of 30. In section 203 of the principal Act, for sub-section (5), the following sub-section shall
section 203.
be substituted, namely:—
“(5) If any company makes any default in complying with the provisions of
this section, such company shall be liable to a penalty of fi ve lakh rupees and every director
and key managerial personnel of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty
of fi fty thousand rupees and where the default is a continuing one, with a further penalty of
one thousand rupees for each day after the fi rst during which such default continues but not
exceeding fi ve lakh rupees.”.
Amendment of 31. In section 212 of the principal Act,—
section 212.
(a) in sub-section (8), for the words “If the Director, Additional Director or Assistant
Director”, the words “If any offi cer not below the rank of Assistant Director” shall be substituted;
(b) in sub-section (9), for the portion beginning with the words “The Director” and
ending with the word, brackets and fi gure “sub-section (8)”, the words, brackets and fi gure
“The offi cer authorised under sub-section (8) shall, immediately after arrest of such person
under such sub-section” shall be substituted;Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 367
(c) in sub-section (10),—
(i) for the words “Judicial Magistrate”, the words “Special Court or Judicial
Magistrate” shall be substituted;
(ii) in the proviso, for the words “Magistrate’s court”, the words “Special Court
or Magistrate’s court” shall be substituted;
(d) after sub-section (14), the following sub-section shall be inserted, namely:—
“(14A) Where the report under sub-section (11) or sub-section (12) statesthat fraud has
taken place in a company and due to such fraud any director, key managerial personnel,
other offi cer of the company or any other person or entity, has taken undue advantage or
benefi t, whether in the form of any asset, property or cash or in any other manner, the Central
Government may fi le an application before the Tribunal for appropriate orders with regard
to disgorgement of such asset, property or cash and also for holding such director, key
managerial personnel, other offi cer or any other person liable personally without any limitation
of liability.”.
32. In section 238 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), for the words “punishable with
Amendment of
fi ne which shall not be less than twenty-fi ve thousand rupees but which may extend to fi ve section 238.
lakh rupees”, the words “liable to a penalty of one lakh rupees” shall be substituted.
33. in section 241 of the principal Act,— Amendment of
section 241.
(a) sub-section (2), the following proviso shall be inserted, namely:—
“Provided that the applications under this sub-section, in respect of such
company or class of companies, as may be prescribed, shall be made before the Principal
Bench of the Tribunal which shall be dealt with by such Bench.”;
(b) after sub-section (2), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—
“(3) Where in the opinion of the Central Government there exist circumstances suggesting
that––
(a) any person concerned in the conduct and management of the aff airs of a
company is or has been in connection therewith guilty of fraud, misfeasance, persistent
negligence or default in carrying out his obligations and functions under the law or of breach
of trust;
(b) the business of a company is not or has not been conducted and managed by
such person in accordance with sound business principles or prudent commercial practices;
(c) a company is or has been conducted and managed by such person in a manner
which is likely to cause, or has caused, serious injury or damage to the interest of the trade,
industry or business to which such company pertains; or
(d) the business of a company is or has been conducted and managed by such
person with intent to defraud its creditors, members or any other person or otherwise for a
fraudulent or unlawful purpose or in a manner prejudicial to public interest,
the Central Government may initiate a case against such person and refer the same to
the Tribunal with a request that the Tribunal may inquire into the case and record a decision
as to whether or not such person is a fi t and proper person to hold the offi ce of director or any
other offi ce connected with the conduct and management of any company.
(4) The person against whom a case is referred to the Tribunal under sub-section
(3), shall be joined as a respondent to the application.
(5) Every application under sub-section (3)––
(a) shall contain a concise statement of such circumstances and materials as
the Central Government may consider necessary for the purposes of the inquiry; and
5 of 1908. (b) shall be signed and verifi ed in the manner laid down in the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908, for the signature and verifi cation of a plaint in a suit by the Central
Government.”.368 TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE [Part IV—Sec. 4
Amendment of 34. In section 242 of the principal Act, after sub-section (4), the following sub-section
section 242. shall be inserted, namely:––
“(4A) At the conclusion of the hearing of the case in respect of sub-section (3) of
section 241, the Tribunal shall record its decision stating therein specifi cally as to whether or
not the respondent is a fi t and proper person to hold the offi ce of director or any other offi ce
connected with the conduct and management of any company.”.
Amendment of 35. In section 243 of the principal Act,—
section 243.
(a) after sub-section (1), the following sub-sections shall be inserted, namely:—
“(1A) The person who is not a fi t and proper person pursuant tosub-section
(4A) of section 242 shall not hold the offi ce of a director or any other offi ce connected with
the conduct and management of the aff airs of any company for a period of fi ve years from the
date of the said decision:
Provided that the Central Government may, with the leave of the Tribunal,
permit such person to hold any such offi ce before the expiry of the said period of fi ve years.
(1B) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other provision of this Act, or
any other law for the time being in force, or any contract, memorandum or articles, on the
removal of a person from the offi ce of a director or any other offi ce connected with the conduct
and management of the aff airs of the company, that person shall not be entitled to, or be paid,
any compensation for the loss or termination of offi ce.”;
(b) in sub-section (2), after the word, brackets and fi gure “sub-section (1)”, the
words, brackets, fi gure and letter “or sub-section (1A)” shall be inserted.
36. In section 248 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1),—
Amendment of
section 248.
(a) in clause (c), for the word and fi gures “section 455,”, the words and fi gures
“section 455; or” shall be substituted;
(b) after clause (c) and before the long line, the following clauses shall be
inserted, namely:—
“(d) the subscribers to the memorandum have not paid the subscription which
they had undertaken to pay at the time of incorporation of a company and a declaration to this
eff ect has not been fi led within one hundred and eighty days of its incorporation under sub-
section (1) of section 10A; or
(e) the company is not carrying on any business or operations, as revealed
after the physical verifi cation carried out under sub-section (9) of section 12.”.
Amendment of 37. In section 272 of the principal Act, in sub-section (3), for the words, brackets and
section 272. letter “or clause (e) of that sub-section”, the words “of that section” shall be substituted.
Amendment of 38. In section 398 of the principal Act, in sub-section (1), in clause (f), the word
section 398. “prospectus,” shall be omitted.
Amendment of 39. In section 441 of the principal Act,— 2 of 1974.
section 441.
(a) in sub-section (1), in clause (b), for the words “does not exceed fi ve lakh rupees”,
the words “does not exceed twenty-fi ve lakh rupees” shall be substituted;
(b) for sub-section (6), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:—
“(6) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of CriminalProcedure,
1973, any off ence which is punishable under this Act with imprisonment only or with
imprisonment and also with fi ne shall not be compoundable.”.
Amendment of 40. In section 446B of the principal Act, for the portion beginning with the words
section 446B.
“punishable with fi ne” and ending with the words “specifi ed in such sections”, the words “liable
to a penalty which shall not be more than one-half of the penalty specifi ed in such sections”
shall be substituted.
Amendment of 41. In section 447 of the principal Act, in the second proviso, for the words “twenty lakh
section 447.
rupees”, the words “fi fty lakh rupees” shall be substituted.Oct. 2, 2019] TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT GAZETTE 369
42. In section 454 of the principal Act, —
Amendment of
(i) for sub-section (3), the following sub-section shall be substituted, namely:— Section 454.
“(3) The adjudicating offi cer may, by an order—
(a) impose the penalty on the company, the offi cer who is in default, or
any other person, as the case may be, stating therein any non-compliance or default under
the relevant provisions of this Act; and
(b) direct such company, or offi cer who is in default, or any other person,
as the case may be, to rectify the default, wherever he considers fi t.”;
(ii) in sub-section (4), for the words “such company and the offi cer who is in default”, the
words “such company, the offi cer who is in default or any other person” shall be substituted;
(iii) in sub-section (8),—
(a) in clause (i), for the words “does not pay the penalty imposed by the
adjudicating offi cer or the Regional Director”, the words, brackets and fi gures “fails to comply
with the order made under sub-section (3) or sub-section (7), as the case may be,” shall be
substituted;
(b) in clause (ii)––
(i) for the words “Where an offi cer of a company”, the words “Where an
offi cer of a company or any other person” shall be substituted;
(ii) for the words “does not pay the penalty”, the words, brackets and
fi gures “fails to comply with the order made under sub-section (3) or sub-section (7), as the
case may be,” shall be substituted.
43. After section 454 of the principal Act, the following section shall be inserted, namely:— Insertion of
new section
454A.
“454A. Where a company or an offi cer of a company or any other person having already
Penalty for
been subjected to penalty for default under any provisions of this Act, again commits such repeated
default within a period of three years from the date of order imposing such penalty passed by default.
the adjudicating offi cer or the Regional Director, as the case may be, it or he shall be liable
for the second or subsequent defaults for an amount equal to twice the amount of penalty
provided for such default under the relevant provisions of this Act.”.
Ord 6 od 2019. 44. (1) The Companies (Amendment) Second Ordinance, 2019 is hereby repealed. Repeal and
savings.
(2) Notwithstanding such repeal, anything done or any action taken under the said
Ordinance shall be deemed to have been done or taken under this Act.
D(cid:3482). G. NARAYANA RAJU,
Secretary to the Government of India.
(Re-published by Order of the Governor)
K. RAVIKUMAR,
Additional Secretary to Government,
Law Department.
PRINTED AND PUBLISHED BY THE DIRECTOR OF STATIONERY AND PRINTING, CHENNAI
ON BEHALF OF THE GOVERNMENT OF TAMIL NADU
            

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